Environmental Public Health Act 1987
2020 REVISED EDITION This revised edition incorporates all amendments up to and including 1 December 2021 and comes into operation on 31 December 2021. Prepared and Published by THE LAW REVISION COMMISSION UNDER THE AUTHORITY OF THE REVISED EDITION OF THE LAWS ACT 1983
An Act to consolidate the law relating to environmental public health and to provide for matters connected therewith. [1 July 1987]
ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS PART 1 PRELIMINARY Section 1. Short title 2. Interpretation PART 2 ADMINISTRATION 3. Appointment of Director-General and authorised officers 4. Delegation of power by Director-General PART 3 PUBLIC CLEANSING Cleaning of streets, etc. 5. Director-General to cause public streets, etc., to be cleansed 6. Duty of owner and occupier to keep clean private streets, etc., abutting on their premises 7. Dustbins in streets Removal of refuse 2020 Ed. 8. Director-General may apply systems for collection and removal of refuse, etc. 9. Removal of industrial waste, stable refuse, etc. 10. Director-General may require owner and occupier to provide dustbins and refuse bins, etc. 11. Maintenance of refuse equipment or facility in buildings 12. Occupier of house to remove refuse 13. Prohibition on use of nightsoil or human excreta as manure Section 14. Prohibition on use of nightsoil or human excreta for manuring earth in pots, etc. 15. Prohibition of cultivation or use of manure or irrigation which is nuisance 16. All refuse, etc., collected to be property of Agency Offences in respect of uncleanliness in public places 17. Prohibition against throwing refuse, etc., in any public place 17A. Presumptions in respect of littering, etc., from residential flats 18. Building works constituting danger to life, health, etc. 19. Prohibition against dropping, scattering, etc., certain substances in public place 20. Prohibition against dumping and disposing 21. Notice to attend Court 21A. Corrective work order 21B. Obligations of person subject to corrective work order 21C. Breach of corrective work order 21D. Variation and revocation of corrective work order 21E. Interpretation of sections 21 to 21D PART 3A WASTE MANAGEMENT Disposal facilities 22. Provision of public disposal facilities 23. No disposal facility to be constructed, etc., without waste disposal licence 23A. Prescribed conditions relating to progressive wage model for waste disposal industry Disposal and treatment of industrial waste 24. Prohibition against disposal of industrial waste in unauthorised places 25. Proper storage of industrial waste 26. Notice requiring periodic removal of industrial waste from premises 27. [Repealed] 28. Industrial waste brought to disposal facility to be recycled or treated Section 29. Dangerous substance or toxic industrial waste not to be brought to disposal facility without permission 30. Excessive production of toxic industrial waste General 30A. Furnishing of information and keeping, etc., of records on waste and submission of waste reduction plan Collection, removal, etc., of waste 31. Licensing of persons carrying on business of collecting, removing, etc., of refuse or waste 31AA. Prescribed conditions relating to progressive wage model for waste collection industry 31A. Special administration order, etc., made on application by Agency 31B. Meaning and effect of special administration orders 31C. Remuneration and expenses of Agency and others 31D. Restrictions on voluntary winding up, etc. Provisions applicable in respect of waste disposal licences and waste collector licences 31DA. Amounts specified by Commissioner for Labour for waste management industry 31DB. Monitoring powers PART 3B DISTRICT PNEUMATIC WASTE CONVEYANCE SYSTEM 31E. Interpretation of this Part 31F. Application of this Part 31G. Declaration of DPWCS areas 31H. Changes affecting DPWCS areas 31I. Notice of declaration, etc. 31J. No collection of waste or waste through DPWCS, etc., without licence 31K. Works by DPWCS licensee 31L. Director-General may require owner or occupier to connect to DPWCS 31M. Connection charge 31N. Tariff Section 31O. Recovery of connection charge and tariff 31P. Duty to enquire before excavation 31Q. Damage to DPWCS 31R. Relocation, etc., of pneumatic waste conveyance system 31S. DPWCS connections not fixtures 31T. Exemption from distress and attachment, etc. 31U. Exclusion from requirement for waste collector licence 31V. Application of sections 31A to 31D in relation to DPWCS licensee PART 4 FOOD ESTABLISHMENTS, MARKETS AND HAWKERS 31W. Administration of this Part and Part 9 32. Food establishments to be licensed 33. Licensing of hawkers operating from stalls, etc. 34. Licensing of itinerant hawkers 35. Director‑General, Food Administration may issue temporary permits 36. Licences for private markets 37. Persons with infectious diseases not to carry on business 38. Unauthorised structures 39. Cleanliness of markets and stalls 40. Articles of food unfit for human consumption 41. Cleanliness of vehicles, equipment, etc. 41A. Penalties for offences under this Part 42. Notice to attend Court 42A. Regulations for this Part PART 5 PUBLIC NUISANCES 43. Public nuisances to be abated 44. Nuisances liable to be dealt with summarily 45. Nuisance order 46. Execution of order for demolition PART 5A ENVIRONMENTAL PUBLIC HEALTH REQUIREMENTS FOR CONTROLLED WORKS Section 46A. Interpretation of this Part 46B. Purpose of this Part 46C. No controlled works without clearance certificate 46D. Controlled works exempt from section 46C 46E. Application for clearance certificate 46F. Preliminary certification of building designs 46G. New clearance certificate required for amended plans of controlled works 46H. Offence to deviate from plans certified in clearance certificate 46I. Compliance certificate required upon completion of controlled works 46J. Temporary compliance certificate 46K. Consequences of providing false or misleading information, etc. 46L. Appeals under this Part 46M. Designation of persons to hear appeals 46N. Use of electronic service for making applications, etc. 46O. Registration, appointment and duties of registered inspectors PART 6 INSANITARY PREMISES, SANITARY CONVENIENCES, GENERAL HEALTH REQUIREMENTS FOR BUILDINGS Insanitary premises 47. Premises in unwholesome state 48. Destruction of rats, wasps, bees, etc. 49. Closing and demolition, etc., of insanitary dwellings 50. Overcrowding of houses Sanitary conveniences, drains, sewers and wells 51. Public toilets 52. Insufficient and defective sanitary conveniences 53. Repairs 54. Sanitary conveniences in work premises or work place 55. Care of sanitary conveniences 56. Inadequate bathroom facilities 57. Construction and maintenance of private drains Section 58. Drains, etc., to be kept in order at cost of owners 59. Restriction on construction of wells, etc. General health requirements for buildings 60. Publicly accessible premises to be kept clean, etc. 61. Director-General may require employers to provide mess rooms, etc. 61A. Environmental Control Coordinators and Environmental Control Officers 61B. Appeal against decisions made under section 61A 62. Appointment of Environmental Control Officer in construction site 62A. Appointment of Environmental Control Coordinator or Environmental Control Officer for specified premises 62B. Environmental sanitation programme for specified premises 62C. Power to give directives 62D. Monitoring powers for purposes of sections 62A, 62B and 62C 62E. Application to Government PART 7 AQUATIC FACILITIES 63. Licensable aquatic facilities 64. Prohibition of use or operation of aquatic facility 65. Monitoring powers for purposes of this Part 66. Application to Government PART 7A AEROSOL-GENERATING SYSTEMS 66A. Registrable aerosol-generating systems 66B. Prohibition of use or operation of aerosol-generating system 66C. Monitoring powers for purposes of this Part 66D. Application to Government PART 8 FUNERAL PARLOURS, CEMETERIES AND CREMATORIA 67. Licensing of funeral parlours, cemeteries and crematoria 68. [Repealed] 69. Corpse not to be retained beyond 48 hours unless encoffined Section 70. Decomposed corpse 71. Agency may provide cemeteries and crematoria 72. Places which may be used for burials, etc. 73. Unlawful burials 74. Power to close cemeteries, etc. 75. Unauthorised structure 76. Exhumation 77. [Repealed] PART 9 PROVISION OF WATER SUITABLE FOR DRINKING 78. Interpretation of this Part 79. Provision of water suitable for drinking 80. Power to enter and investigate 80A. Regulations for this Part PART 9A GENERAL CLEANING INDUSTRY 80B. Purpose of this Part 80C. Non-application of sections 99 and 103 80D. Carrying on cleaning business without cleaning business licence prohibited 80E. Offence to engage unlicensed persons 80F. Application for cleaning business licence 80G. Grant or refusal of cleaning business licence 80H. Conditions of cleaning business licence 80I. Form and validity of cleaning business licence 80J. Revocation and suspension of cleaning business licence 80K. Financial penalty 80L. Changes to information submitted 80M. Monitoring powers 80N. Register of cleaning business licensees PART 10 ENFORCEMENT 81. Power to enter upon lands for purposes of Act 82. Penalty for obstruction Section 83. Director-General or Director-General, Food Administration may act in cases of emergency 84. Appeal to Minister against notice, order or decision 84A. Appeal against decisions under Part 4 or 9 85. Default in compliance with notice 86. Authorised officers may demand names and addresses in certain cases 87. Power of investigating offences 88. Powers of arrest 88A. False or misleading information PART 11 COMPENSATION, DAMAGES, FEES, COSTS AND EXPENSES 89. Compensation, damages, fees, costs and expenses to be determined by Magistrate’s Court or District Court 90. Damage to property of Agency and Singapore Food Agency to be made good in addition to penalty 91. Payment of fees, etc. 92. Recovery of costs and expenses payable by owners 93. Recovery of costs and expenses by instalments 94. Liability of transferor of property in respect of costs and expenses incurred by Director-General 95. Limitation of liability to fines and penalties PART 12 MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS 96. Protection from personal liability 97. Exemption of agent who has no funds in hand 98. Service of summons, notice, etc. 99. Licences 99A. Codes of practice and standards of performance 100. Receipts, notices, etc., may be given by authorised officer 101. Furnishing of information required by Director‑General 102. Saving of prosecutions under other laws 103. General penalties 103A. Offences by bodies corporate, etc. 104. Composition of offences 105. Inaccuracies in documents 106. Jurisdiction of court Section 107. Evidence 108. Forms 108A. Modification of provisions 109. Amendment of Schedules 110. Exemption 111. Regulations First Schedule — Description of purposes for use of food establishments to which section 32 applies Second Schedule — [Repealed] Third Schedule — Subject matters of regulations Fourth Schedule — Private persons who can be authorised to exercise powers under this Act or its regulations and powers in respect of which persons may act
This Act is the Environmental Public Health Act 1987.
“aerosol-generating system” means any device or system that is capable of producing a suspension of fine liquid droplets in air or other type of gas; “Agency” means the National Environment Agency established under the National Environment Agency Act 2002; “aquatic facility” means any pool, device or facility used or intended to be used for any recreational or therapeutic activity in, on or involving the use of water; “aquatic facility licence” means a licence granted under this Act for a licensable aquatic facility; “authorised officer” means any person appointed by the Director‑General under sections 3(2) and 4(2) to be an authorised officer; “auxiliary officer” means an individual who is appointed as an auxiliary officer under section 16A(1) of the National Environment Agency Act 2002; “baseline wage”, in relation to a waste management worker — (a) means the total amount of money (including wage adjustments and increments) to which the waste management worker is entitled under his or her contract of service — (i) for working for a period of time, that is, for one hour, one day, one week, one month or for any other period that may be stated or implied in his or her contract of service; or (ii) for each completed piece or task of work; (b) includes any payment that is prescribed as being part of the baseline wage; and (c) excludes all of the following: (i) additional payments by way of overtime payments; (ii) additional payments by way of bonus payments or annual wage supplements; (iii) any sum paid to the waste management worker to reimburse him or her for special expenses incurred by him or her in the course of his or her employment; (iv) any payment that may be prescribed as not being part of the baseline wage; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “basic rate of pay” means the total amount of money (including wage adjustments and increments) to which an employee is entitled under his or her contract of service for working for a period of time, that is, for one hour, one day, one week, one month or for any other period that may be stated or implied in his or her contract of service, or for each completed piece or task of work, but does not include — (a) additional payments by way of overtime payments; (b) additional payments by way of bonus payments or annual wage supplements; (c) any sum paid to the employee to reimburse him or her for special expenses incurred by him or her in the course of his or her employment; (d) productivity incentive payments; and (e) any allowance however described; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “basic wage”, in relation to a cleaner, means wage calculated at the cleaner’s basic rate of pay — (a) for one hour, one day, one week, one month or for any other period that may be stated or implied in his or her contract of service; or (b) for each completed piece or task of work; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “building” includes any house, hut, shed or roofed enclosure, whether used for the purpose of human habitation or otherwise, and any structure, support or foundation connected to the foregoing; “cleaner” means an individual who is engaged, whether as a full‑time employee, part-time employee or casual employee and whether or not at piece rates — (a) to perform cleaning work for a person other than the individual’s employer; or (b) to supervise other individuals performing cleaning work for a person other than the individual’s employer, whether or not the individual is known as a supervisor or leader or by any other title, and includes any individual who is declared by the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, to be a cleaner; “cleaning business” means a business, whether or not the business is carried on for profit — (a) in which a person carries out cleaning work for other persons through the services of cleaners engaged or employed by that person; or (b) of supplying cleaners to other persons; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “cleaning business licence” means a licence granted under section 80G(1); “cleaning contract”, in relation to a person, means a contract for the provision of cleaning work to other persons by cleaners, or for the supply to other persons of cleaners, who are engaged or employed by the person; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “cleaning work” means work carried out in Singapore that has, as its main or only component, the bringing of premises or any public place into, or keeping of premises or any public place in, a clean condition, and includes supervising the carrying out of that work but excludes any work that the Minister declares, by notification in the Gazette, not to be cleaning work; “code of practice” means any code of practice issued or approved under section 99A(1), and includes such code of practice as amended from time to time; “Commissioner for Labour” means the Commissioner for Labour appointed under section 3(1) of the Employment Act 1968; “common property” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Building Maintenance and Strata Management Act 2004; “construction site” means any premises on which works of the following description are being or are going to be carried out: (a) the erection, construction, alteration, repair or maintenance of buildings, structures or roads; (b) the breaking up or opening of, or boring under, any road or adjacent land in connection with the construction, inspection, maintenance or removal of works; (c) demolition or dredging works; (d) any other work of engineering construction; “dangerous substance” means — (a) aquafortis, vitriol, naphtha benzine, gunpowder, lucifer matches, nitroglycerine and petroleum; (b) any explosive within the meaning of the Arms and Explosives Act (Cap. 13); (c) any radioactive material within the meaning of the Radiation Protection Act 2007; (d) any substance which owing to its nature, composition or quantity constitutes a danger to property or human life or health; and (e) such other substance which the Agency may, with the approval of the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, declare to be a dangerous substance for the purpose of this Act; “Director-General” means the Director-General of Public Health appointed under section 3(1); “Director-General, Food Administration” means the Director‑General, Food Administration appointed under section 3(1) of the Sale of Food Act 1973; “disposal facility” includes a recycling facility, a refuse disposal ground, any place used for the deposit of refuse or waste, an incinerator or any plant, machinery or apparatus used for the processing or treatment of refuse or waste; “dwelling house” includes any building or tenement or any part thereof which is used, constructed or adapted for use for human habitation; “environmental sanitation programme” means any environmental sanitation programme developed under section 62B, and includes such environmental sanitation programme as amended from time to time; “flat” means a horizontal stratum of any building or part thereof, whether the stratum is on one or more levels or is partially or wholly below the surface of the ground, which is used or intended to be used as a complete and separate unit for the purpose of habitation or business or for any other purpose, and which may be comprised in a “lot”, or in part of any “subdivided building” not shown in a registered “strata title plan” (the last 3 expressions within quotation marks having the meanings given by the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967); “food” includes drink, chewing gum and other products of a like nature and use, and articles and substances used as ingredients in the preparation of food or drink or of such products, but does not include — (a) live animals or birds; (b) fodder or feeding stuffs for animals, birds or fish; or (c) articles or substances used only as drugs; “food establishment” means any place or any premises or part thereof used for the sale, or for the preparation or manufacture for sale, or for the storage or packing for sale, of food, whether cooked or not, intended for human consumption; “footway” includes footways and verandah‑ways at the sides of streets; “funeral parlour” means any premises where corpses are received for the purpose of preparation for burial or cremation or for the carrying out of funeral rites or ceremonies prior to burial or cremation, and includes any premises used for such purpose by whatever name called; “garden refuse” means the refuse from garden and agricultural operations; “house” includes dwelling house, warehouse, office, shop, school and any other building in which persons are employed; “industrial waste” means any waste whether solid, liquid or gaseous produced, or removed or recovered, in the course of or is the waste product of any trade, business, manufacture or building construction, and includes toxic industrial waste and any dangerous substance; [Act 24 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] “infectious diseases” means — (a) any disease set out in the First or Second Schedule to the Infectious Diseases Act 1976; and (b) any skin disease which is likely to be contagious; “itinerant hawker” means any person who, with or without a vehicle, goes from place to place or from house to house carrying for sale or exposing for sale any food or goods of any kind; “latrine” includes bucket latrines, bore-hole latrines, water seal latrines and pit latrines; “licensable aquatic facility” means any aquatic facility of the description or type prescribed by the Agency, with the approval of the Minister, by order in the Gazette; “limited common property” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Building Maintenance and Strata Management Act 2004; “manager”, in relation to any premises, means the occupier of the premises, and where there is no occupier, the owner of the premises; “market” means any place used for the sale of any meat, fish, fruit, vegetable, poultry, egg or other article of food, whether cooked or uncooked, for human consumption, and includes any premises therein used for the sale of goods or in any way used in conjunction or connection therewith or appurtenant thereto; “nuisance” means any act, omission or thing occasioning or likely to occasion injury, annoyance, offence, harm, danger or damage to the sense of sight, smell or hearing, or which is or is likely to be injurious or dangerous to health or property; “occupier” means the person in occupation of any premises or having the charge, management or control thereof either on that person’s own account or as agent of another person; and, in relation to any part of any premises, different parts of which are occupied by different persons, means the person in occupation or having the charge, management or control of that part; “operator”, in relation to a public service vehicle, means the owner, ticket conductor, driver, ticket inspector or person who is in charge or in control of the public service vehicle; “owner”, in relation to — (a) any premises — means the person for the time being receiving the rent of the premises, whether on the person’s own account or as agent or trustee or as receiver, or who would receive the rent if the premises were let to a tenant, and includes the person whose name is entered in the Valuation List prepared under section 10 of the Property Tax Act 1960; (b) any premises where building works are carried out — includes the developer; (c) the common property of any subdivided building — includes the management corporation established under the Building Maintenance and Strata Management Act 2004 having control of the building, or the person receiving any rent or charge for the maintenance of that common property; and (d) the limited common property of any subdivided building — includes the subsidiary management corporation established under the Building Maintenance and Strata Management Act 2004 having control of the limited common property, or the person receiving any rent or charge for the maintenance of that limited common property; “place of public resort” means a building or a defined or an enclosed place used or constructed or adapted to be used either ordinarily or occasionally as a church, mosque, temple or other place where public worship is or religious ceremonies are performed, not being merely a dwelling house so used, or as a cinema, theatre, public hall, or as a public place of assembly for persons admitted thereto by ticket or otherwise, or used or constructed or adapted to be used either ordinarily or occasionally for any other public purpose; “premises” means messuages, buildings, lands, easements and hereditaments of any tenure, whether open or enclosed, whether built on or not, whether public or private, and whether maintained or not under statutory authority, and includes any place or structure, or any part thereof used or intended to be used for human habitation or for any other purpose whatsoever; “private market” means a market other than a public market; “private street” means any street not being a public street; “progressive wage model bonus”, for a cleaner or waste management worker — (a) means a discretionary amount of money payable to a cleaner or waste management worker (as the case may be) that is in addition to all of the following paid to the cleaner or waste management worker: (i) any basic wage (for a cleaner) or baseline wage (for a waste management worker); (ii) any overtime payment; (iii) any sum to reimburse the cleaner or waste management worker for special expenses incurred during his or her employment; (iv) any allowance however described; (b) includes any component that is prescribed as being part of the progressive wage model bonus for a cleaner or waste management worker, as the case may be; and (c) excludes any component that is prescribed as not being part of the progressive wage model bonus for a cleaner or waste management worker, as the case may be; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “progressive wage plan” means — (a) in relation to an applicant for a cleaning business licence — a plan that relates to the basic wage and progressive wage model bonus that the applicant pays or intends to pay to the cleaners who are the applicant’s employees; or (b) in relation to an applicant for a waste collector licence or waste disposal licence — a plan that relates to the baseline wage, overtime payment and progressive wage model bonus that the applicant pays or intends to pay to the waste management workers who are the applicant’s employees; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “public market” means a market owned, leased or maintained by the Government; “public park” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Parks and Trees Act 2005; “public place” includes any place whether privately owned or not to which the public has access; “public service vehicle” has the meaning given by the Road Traffic Act 1961; “public street” means any street over which the public has a right of way and any street vested in the Government; “public waste collector licensee” means a person designated by the Director‑General under section 31(3); “publicly accessible premises” means any premises to which the public or a section of the public has access as of right, or by virtue of any express or implied permission with or without payment of a fee and whether or not access to the premises may be restricted at particular times or for particular purposes, and includes any part of those premises, and “publicly accessible” is to be construed accordingly; “recyclable” means any refuse, waste or other material or thing that the Agency may prescribe, with the approval of the Minister, to be capable of being recycled or reused; “recycling facility” means any premises used for the sorting, segregation, processing or treatment of refuse, waste or any other material or thing for the primary purpose of recycling or reuse; “registered aerosol-generating system” means any registrable aerosol‑generating system that is registered under this Act; “registered Environmental Control Coordinator” means any individual who is registered under this Act as an Environmental Control Coordinator; “registered Environmental Control Officer” means any individual who is registered under this Act as an Environmental Control Officer; “registrable aerosol-generating system” means any aerosol‑generating system of the description or type prescribed by the Agency, with the approval of the Minister, by order in the Gazette; “residential premises” means any premises which are permitted to be used under the Planning Act 1998 or any other written law as a dwelling house or which is lawfully so used; “sale” includes barter, exchange, import and export, and also includes offering or attempting to sell, or causing or allowing to be sold, or exposing for sale, or receiving or sending or delivering for sale, or supplying any food, drink or goods where consideration is to be received by the supplier for such supply either specifically or as part of a service contracted for, or having in possession for sale or having in possession any food, drink or goods knowing that the same is likely to be sold or offered or exposed for sale, and “sell” is to be construed accordingly; “sanitary conveniences” includes latrines, toilets, urinals and water closets; “showboard” includes showcase and any description of container used for the display of any article or thing; “Singapore Food Agency” means the Singapore Food Agency established by the Singapore Food Agency Act 2019; [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “specified premises”, in relation to Part 6, has the meaning given by section 62A; “stable refuse” means the dung or urine of birds, poultry or animals and the sweepings or refuse or drainage from any stables or cattle sheds or places for keeping animals, birds or poultry; “stall” means any table, shed, showboard, vehicle or receptacle or any other means used or intended to be used for the purpose of selling food or goods of any kind, and includes any structure affixed thereto by way of roof, support or flooring; “standard of performance” means any standard of performance issued or approved under section 99A(1), and includes such standard of performance as amended from time to time; “statutory body” means a body corporate established by or under a public Act for a public purpose; “street” includes any road, flyover, square, footway, backlane or passage, whether a thoroughfare or not, over which the public has a right of way, and also the way over any public bridge, and also includes any road, car park, field, grass verge, footway or passage, open court or open alley used or intended to be used as a means of access to 2 or more holdings, whether the public has a right of way thereover or not; and all channels, drains, ditches and reserves at the side of any street are deemed to be part of the street; “toilet” means a facility for urinating and defecating which is water flushed, and which connects, directly or otherwise, with a private sewage disposal system or with the public sewage disposal system; “toxic industrial waste” means any industrial waste which owing to its nature, composition or quantity constitutes a danger to human health or the environment or which contains or may produce pathogens of transmissible diseases; “vehicle” means any vehicle whether mechanically propelled or otherwise, and includes a barrow and a cart; “waste” includes — (a) any substance which constitutes a scrap material or an effluent or other unwanted surplus substance arising from the application of any process; and (b) any substance or article which requires to be disposed of as being broken, worn out, contaminated or otherwise spoiled, and anything which is discarded or otherwise dealt with as if it were waste is presumed to be waste unless the contrary is proved; [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste collection work” — (a) means work carried out in Singapore that has, as its main or only component, the collection, removal, transport, storage or import of refuse or waste; (b) includes supervising the carrying out of that work; and (c) excludes any work that the Minister declares, by notification in the Gazette, not to be waste collection work; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste collection worker” means an individual who is engaged, whether as a full-time employee, part-time employee or casual employee and whether or not at piece rates — (a) to perform waste collection work; or (b) to supervise other individuals performing waste collection work, whether or not the individual is known as a supervisor or leader or by any other title, and includes any individual who is declared by the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, to be a waste collection worker; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste collector licence” means a licence granted under section 31(2); [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste disposal licence” means a licence granted under section 23(2); [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste disposal work” — (a) means work carried out in Singapore that has, as its main or only component, the construction, establishment, maintenance or operation of a disposal facility; (b) includes supervising the carrying out of that work; and (c) excludes any work that the Minister declares, by notification in the Gazette, not to be waste disposal work; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste disposal worker” means an individual who is engaged, whether as a full-time employee, part-time employee or casual employee and whether or not at piece rates — (a) to perform waste disposal work; or (b) to supervise other individuals performing waste disposal work, whether or not the individual is known as a supervisor or leader or by any other title, and includes any individual who is declared by the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, to be a waste disposal worker; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waste management worker” means a waste collection worker or waste disposal worker; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] “waterway” means a navigable river, conduit or drain; “work place” means any premises or place used for any industrial, trade, commercial or manufacturing purposes and includes all construction sites, work sites and farms. [47/2004; 27/2007; 26/2008; 15/2014; 4/2016; 48/2018; 11/2019; 33/2020; 4/2021]
(a) a public officer; (b) an officer or auxiliary officer of the Agency; (c) an officer of any statutory authority; (d) an auxiliary police officer appointed under the Police Force Act 2004. [4/2016]
(a) cause any number of dustbins or other convenient receptacles in which refuse may be temporarily deposited to be provided and placed in proper and convenient locations in public streets and private streets and in any other places that the Director‑General may think fit; and (b) cause vehicles to go round to collect the refuse.
(a) no person other than a waste collector licensee whose specified area in its licence includes premises in the area may collect or remove any refuse or waste; and (b) every occupier of any premises that the Director‑General may designate in the area must use the service of collecting and removing refuse or waste provided by a public waste collector licensee whose specified area in its licence includes those designated premises.
(a) dustbins or other convenient receptacles, which must conform to any specifications that the Director‑General may require, to be placed in appropriate locations within the premises of the owner or occupier as the Director‑General thinks fit for the deposit of refuse and rubbish from those premises; (b) refuse bin centres or refuse bin compartments, which must conform to any specifications that the Director‑General may require, to be sited in appropriate locations within the premises as the Director‑General thinks fit, and in or on which must be placed the dustbins and other receptacles mentioned in paragraph (a); and (c) receptacles which must conform to such specifications as the Director‑General may require, to be placed in appropriate locations within the premises of the owner or occupier as the Director‑General thinks fit for the deposit of recyclables. [26/2008]
(a) maintain, repair or replace the refuse equipment or facility; or (b) make any modification to the refuse equipment or facility that the Director-General considers necessary for the protection of the environment or environmental public health.
“refuse equipment or facility” means any of the following: (a) a refuse or waste chute; (b) a refuse or waste chute chamber; (c) a refuse or waste chute hopper; (d) a refuse or waste lift that is wholly or partly used for the conveyance of refuse or waste; (e) a standalone pneumatic waste conveyance system; “standalone pneumatic waste conveyance system” — (a) means an automated waste collection system that — (i) conveys or transports refuse or waste by air suction through a network of pipes to the refuse bin centre; (ii) consists of the following that are used for, or for purposes connected with, conveying or transporting refuse or waste by air suction to the refuse bin centre: (A) all air and ventilation networks; (B) all valves, cables, pipes, regulators, apparatus, equipment, plants, stations, sensors and receptacles for the temporary storage of refuse or waste; and (iii) is not located in a DPWCS area declared under section 31G(1); and (b) excludes any disposal facility. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) keeps or allows to be kept otherwise than in some proper receptacle, refuse or any noxious or offensive matter in any part of such house or premises; (b) allows such receptacle to be in a filthy or noxious state; or (c) neglects or fails to remove the refuse or noxious or offensive matter from such receptacle and to cleanse the same, shall be guilty of an offence.
A person must not use any nightsoil or human excreta for the purpose of manuring any earth, soil or other substance contained in any pot, box, container or other receptacle.
(a) prohibit the method of cultivation or the use or storing or method of preparing or dealing with the manure or the manner of irrigation within the premises or area; or (b) regulate any of the matters referred to in paragraph (a) by imposing any conditions thereon that the Director‑General may think necessary for the prevention of the nuisance.
(a) deposit, drop, place or throw any dust, dirt, paper, ash, carcase, refuse, box, barrel, bale or any other article or thing in any public place, except in a dustbin or other receptacle provided for the deposit of refuse and rubbish; (b) keep or leave any article or thing in any place where it or particles therefrom have passed or are likely to pass into any public place, except in a dustbin or other receptacle provided for the deposit of refuse and rubbish; (c) dry any article of food or any other article or thing in any public place; (d) place, scatter, spill or throw any blood, brine, noxious liquid, swill or any other offensive or filthy matter of any kind in such manner as to run or fall into any public place; (e) beat, clean, shake, sieve or otherwise agitate any ash, hair, feathers, lime, sand, waste paper or other substance in such manner that it is carried or likely to be carried by the wind to any public place; (f) throw or leave behind any bottle, can, food container, food wrapper, glass, particles of food or any other article or thing in any public place, except in a dustbin or other receptacle provided for the deposit of refuse and rubbish; (g) spit any substance or expel mucus from the nose upon or onto any street or any public place, except in a dustbin or other receptacle provided for the deposit of refuse and rubbish; or (h) discard or abandon in any public place any motor vehicle whose registration has been cancelled under section 27 of the Road Traffic Act 1961, any furniture or any other bulky article. [48/2018]
(a) the owner of the motor vehicle must give any information that he or she may be required to give by a police officer or an authorised officer as to the identity and address of the person who, at or about the time of the alleged offence, was the driver or a passenger of the motor vehicle; and (b) any other person who was or should have been in charge or in control of the motor vehicle at or about the time of the alleged offence must (if so required) give any information which it is in that person’s power to give and which may lead to the identification of the driver and passengers. [15/2014]
(a) any owner of that flat must give any information that the owner may be required to give by a police officer or an authorised officer as to the identity of every person who, at or about the time of the alleged offence, was an occupier of that flat; and (b) any occupier of that flat at or about the time of the alleged offence, or any owner of that flat in the case where that flat was unoccupied at or about that time, must (if so required) give any information which it is in the occupier’s or owner’s power to give and which may lead to the identification of the alleged offender. [15/2014]
(a) where at the time of the contravention the whole residential flat was leased — by the tenant of the residential flat or (if there are 2 or more tenants) by every tenant of the residential flat; or (b) in any other case — by the owner of that residential flat or (where that residential flat is owned by more than one owner) by every owner of that residential flat.
(a) where at the time of the contravention the whole residential flat was leased — by the tenant of the residential flat or (if there are 2 or more tenants) by every tenant of the residential flat; or (b) in any other case — by the owner of that residential flat or (where that residential flat is owned by more than one owner) by every owner of that residential flat.
(a) where at the time of the contravention the whole residential flat was leased — by the tenant of the residential flat or (if there are 2 or more tenants) by every tenant of the residential flat; or (b) in any other case — by the owner of that residential flat or (where that residential flat is owned by more than one owner) by every owner of that residential flat.
(a) where at the time of the contravention the whole residential flat was leased — by the tenant of the residential flat or (if there are 2 or more tenants) by every tenant of the residential flat; or (b) in any other case — by the owner of that residential flat or (where that residential flat is owned by more than one owner) by every owner of that residential flat.
(a) the contravention mentioned in subsection (1), (2), (3) or (4) (as the case may be) was committed by a person other than the presumed offender; (b) the presumed offender was not present in the residential flat at the time the contravention was committed; or (c) the presumed offender provided the identity of the person whom the presumed offender reasonably believes to have committed the contravention, to a police officer or an authorised officer within 14 days after being required to do so by the police officer or authorised officer.
(a) a single agreement with those tenants; or (b) separate agreements with one or more of those tenants.
Any person who, during the erection, alteration, construction or demolition of any building or at any time, fails to take reasonable precautions to prevent danger to the life, health or wellbeing of persons using any public place from flying dust or falling fragments or from any other material, thing or substance shall be guilty of an offence.
(a) drops, scatters, spills or throws any noxious liquid, dirt, sand, earth, gravel, clay, loam, manure, refuse, sawdust, shavings, stone, straw or any other similar matter or thing; or (b) causes or permits any noxious liquid, dirt, sand, earth, gravel, clay, loam, manure, refuse, sawdust, shavings, stone, straw or any other similar matter or thing to be dropped, scattered, spilled or thrown, in any public place (whether from a moving or stationary vehicle or in any other manner) shall be guilty of an offence.
(a) where the matter or thing is dropped, scattered, spilled or thrown from a vehicle, the driver or person having charge or control of the vehicle is deemed to have committed the offence, unless the offence is committed by a person other than the driver or person having charge or control of the vehicle and the identity of the person who committed the offence can be established; and (b) where the driver of a motor vehicle is alleged or is suspected to be guilty of the offence under this section — (i) the owner of the motor vehicle must give any information that the owner may be required to give by a police officer or an authorised officer as to the identity and address of the person who, at or about the time of the alleged offence, was the driver of the motor vehicle and such other information as the police officer or authorised officer may require; and (ii) any other person who was or should have been in charge or in control of the motor vehicle at or about the time of the alleged offence must (if so required) give any information which it is in that person’s power to give, and which may lead to the identification of the driver. [15/2014]
(a) dumps or disposes, or causes or permits the dumping or disposal, of any refuse, waste or any other article from a vehicle in a public place; or [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) uses, or permits the use of, a vehicle for the purpose of dumping or disposing of any refuse, waste or any other article in a public place, [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
Where the driver or a passenger of a motor vehicle is alleged or suspected to be guilty of an offence under this section — (a) the owner of the motor vehicle must give any information that the owner may be required to give by a police officer or an authorised officer as to the identity and address of the person who, at or about the time of the alleged offence, was the driver or a passenger of the motor vehicle; and (b) any other person who was or should have been in charge or in control of the motor vehicle at or about the time of the alleged offence must (if so required) give any information which it is in that person’s power to give and which may lead to the identification of the driver and passengers. [15/2014]
(a) the vehicle seized under subsection (5) is to be forfeited at the expiry of 3 months from the date of the seizure unless a claim thereto is made before that date; and (b) any person asserting that the person is the owner of the vehicle may personally, or by the person’s agent authorised in writing, give written notice to the Director‑General that the person claims the vehicle.
(a) on proof that the vehicle was used in the commission of an offence of dumping or disposing of refuse, waste or any other article in any public place under subsection (1) — order the vehicle to be forfeited; or (b) in the absence of such proof — order the vehicle to be released.
(a) in the case of an offence under section 20(1), to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $100,000 and to imprisonment for a term of not less than one month and not more than 12 months; (b) in the case of an offence under section 17(1)(h), to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; and (c) in the case of any other offence, to a fine not exceeding — (i) in the case of a first conviction, $2,000; (ii) in the case of a second conviction, $4,000; and (iii) in the case of a third or subsequent conviction, $10,000. [15/2014]
(a) the purpose and effect of the order and in particular the requirements of the order as specified in section 21B or any regulations made under that section; (b) the consequences which may follow under section 21C if the offender fails to comply with any of those requirements; and (c) that the Court has under section 21D the power to review the order on the application of the offender or the Director‑General.
(a) issue a summons requiring the offender to appear before the Court at the place and time specified in the summons; or (b) issue a warrant for the arrest of the offender.
(a) reduce the number of hours of work which has been specified in the order under section 21A(2); or (b) extend the period of 12 months mentioned in section 21B(2).
“corrective work order” means a corrective work order made by a Court under section 21A; “Court” means a Magistrate’s Court or a District Court; “offender” means a person who is 16 years of age or above who is convicted of an offence under section 17 or 19; “supervision officer” means an authorised officer or any other person as the Agency may, with the approval of the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, specify to be a supervision officer for the purpose of supervising the performance of work by an offender under a corrective work order.
(a) provide, acquire, construct and maintain any disposal facility (called in this Act a public disposal facility) for the deposit, disposal and treatment of refuse or waste as he or she may consider necessary; and (b) make available the facility to any person upon payment of any fees or charges as may be prescribed.
(a) refuse to accept any refuse or waste brought to any public disposal facility without giving any reason; or (b) accept refuse or waste of any description or kind upon any terms and conditions that he or she may consider necessary.
(a) be in the form and manner specified by the Director- General; (b) be accompanied by an application fee, if prescribed; and (c) be accompanied by any prescribed information that the Director-General requires to decide on the application, including but not limited to the following: (i) a progressive wage plan for the waste disposal workers that the applicant employs who are citizens or permanent residents of Singapore, that complies with the prescribed requirements; (ii) evidence that such proportion of the waste disposal workers that the applicant employs, have attended such training and at such frequency, as the Director- General may specify. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) a condition requiring the waste disposal licensee to comply with any standard of service and level of performance that the Director‑General may specify; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (c) a condition regulating the charge to be levied by the waste disposal licensee for the provision of the waste disposal facility; and [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (d) a condition requiring the waste disposal licensee not to accept any waste which in the opinion of the Director‑General is not suitable for disposal. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) under section 99(1)(c), impose different conditions for different classes of waste disposal licences or waste disposal licensees under different circumstances; and (b) despite section 99(13), modify any condition or add any new condition during the period to which a waste disposal licence relates, if the Director-General is satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so, except that any such condition or modification must not be inconsistent with any prescribed condition referred to in section 23A(1) or (2). [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) conditions requiring the waste disposal licensee to enter into a contract of service in writing with each waste disposal worker employed by the waste disposal licensee; (b) conditions requiring every contract of service entered into between the waste disposal licensee and every resident waste disposal worker to provide for the payment of a baseline wage, a progressive wage model bonus or an overtime payment to the resident waste disposal worker, that — (i) is not less than the amount; and (ii) in the case of a progressive wage model bonus, is to be paid at the frequency, specified by order under section 31DA(1) for the class of waste disposal workers that the resident waste disposal worker belongs to; (c) conditions requiring the waste disposal licensee to ensure that every waste disposal worker employed by the waste disposal licensee satisfies the training requirements as may be specified by the Director-General for the class of waste disposal workers that the waste disposal worker belongs to; (d) conditions prohibiting the waste disposal licensee from deploying any individual who is not employed by the waste disposal licensee to carry out any waste disposal work, unless the individual is a waste disposal worker employed by another waste disposal licensee; and (e) conditions requiring the waste disposal licensee to keep such records, accounts or documents relating to the business or activities that the waste disposal licensee is authorised to carry out under the waste disposal licence, as may be prescribed, and retain those records, accounts or documents for a prescribed period.
The occupier of any work place where industrial waste is being produced must keep or store the waste before disposal in a proper and efficient manner so as not to create a nuisance or to cause any risk, harm or injury to persons or animals or is likely to pollute the environment.
The Director-General may, by written notice, require the occupier of any work place to recycle or treat any industrial waste found or produced in those premises at the occupier’s own expense before it is brought to any disposal facility for disposal.
(a) alter the method of operation or process used in the work place; (b) alter, install, repair or replace any device, equipment or plant used in the work place; (c) use other materials or substances other than those used in the work place; or (d) take any other steps that may be necessary to reduce the quantity or toxicity of such waste.
(a) to furnish the Director‑General with any information on the amount, type and nature of any waste produced in that work place and any other particulars that may be specified in the notice; (b) to keep and maintain records containing any information on any waste produced in that work place that may be specified in the notice and retain those records for the period that may be specified in the notice; (c) to submit to the Director‑General any waste reduction plan for the period and containing information on the targets for waste reduction, measures to reduce waste and the progress of any waste reduction measure contained in any waste reduction plan previously submitted to the Director‑General, and any other particulars relating to waste reduction, that may be specified in the notice. [15/2014]
(a) be in the form and manner specified by the Director- General; (b) be accompanied by an application fee, if prescribed; and (c) be accompanied by any prescribed information that the Director-General requires to decide on the application, including but not limited to the following: (i) a progressive wage plan for the waste collection workers that the applicant employs who are citizens or permanent residents of Singapore, that complies with the prescribed requirements; (ii) evidence that such proportion of the waste collection workers that the applicant employs, have attended such training and at such frequency, as the Director- General may specify. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) a condition requiring the waste collector licensee to comply with such standard of service and level of performance as the Director‑General may specify; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) a condition restricting, in a manner specified in the waste collector licence, the provision by the waste collector licensee of the service of collecting and removing refuse or waste to premises which are of a class or description so specified and to the area so specified; and [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (c) [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (d) a condition regulating the charge to be levied by the waste collector licensee for the provision of the service of collecting and removing refuse or waste. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) under section 99(1)(c), impose different conditions for different classes of waste collector licences or waste collector licensees under different circumstances; and (b) despite section 99(13), modify any condition or add any new condition during the period to which a waste collector licence relates, if the Director-General is satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so, except that any such condition or modification must not be inconsistent with any prescribed condition referred to in section 31AA(1) or (2). [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) conditions requiring the waste collector licensee to enter into a contract of service in writing with each waste collection worker employed by the waste collector licensee; (b) conditions requiring every contract of service entered into between the waste collector licensee and every resident waste collection worker to provide for the payment of a baseline wage, a progressive wage model bonus or an overtime payment to the resident waste collection worker, that — (i) is not less than the amount; and (ii) in the case of a progressive wage model bonus, is to be paid at the frequency, (b) specified by order under section 31DA(1) for the class of waste collection workers that the resident waste collection worker belongs to; (c) conditions requiring the waste collector licensee to ensure that every waste collection worker employed by the waste collector licensee satisfies the training requirements as may be specified by the Director-General for the class of waste collection workers that the waste collection worker belongs to; (d) conditions prohibiting the waste collector licensee from deploying any individual who is not employed by the waste collector licensee to carry out any waste collection work, unless the individual is a waste collection worker employed by another waste collector licensee; and (e) conditions requiring the waste collector licensee to keep such records, accounts or documents relating to the business or activities that the waste collector licensee is authorised to carry out under the waste collector licence, as may be prescribed, and retain those records, accounts or documents for a prescribed period.
(a) a special administration order in relation to that public waste collector licensee; (b) an order requiring the public waste collector licensee immediately to take action or to do or not to do any act or thing in relation to that part of its business or undertaking to which its licence relates as the Minister may consider necessary; (c) an order appointing a person to advise the public waste collector licensee on the proper conduct of that part of its business or undertaking to which its licence relates.[15/2014]
(a) there has been, is or is likely to be, a contravention by the public waste collector licensee of the conditions of its licence that is serious enough to make it inappropriate for the public waste collector licensee to continue to be designated a public waste collector licensee; (b) the public waste collector licensee is or is likely to be unable to pay its debts; (c) a public emergency has occurred; (d) the Minister considers it in the interest of the security and reliability of waste collection and removal services to the public; or (e) the Minister otherwise considers it in the public interest. [15/2014]
(a) for securing one or more of the purposes of such an order set out in subsection (2); and (b) in a manner which protects the respective interests of the members, creditors and customers of that public waste collector licensee. [15/2014]
(a) the security and reliability of the supply of waste collection and removal services in any specified area to the public; (b) the survival of the public waste collector licensee, or the whole or part of its business for which it is authorised by its licence to carry on, as a going concern; (c) the transfer to another person, or (as respects different parts of its undertaking) to 2 or more different persons, as a going concern, of so much of the public waste collector licensee’s undertaking as it is necessary to transfer in order to ensure that the functions which have been vested in the public waste collector licensee by virtue of its licence may be properly carried out; or (d) the carrying out of those functions and duties which have been vested in the public waste collector licensee pending the making of the transfer and the vesting of those functions and duties in other person or persons. [15/2014]
(a) a public waste collector licensee must not be wound up voluntarily without the consent of the Agency; (b) no judicial manager may be appointed under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a public waste collector licensee; (c) no step may be taken by any person to enforce any security over a public waste collector licensee’s property, except where that person has served on the Agency 14 days’ notice of the person’s intention to take that step; (d) no step may be taken by any person to enforce a judgment or an order of court obtained against a public waste collector licensee, except where that person has served on the Agency 14 days’ notice of the person’s intention to take that step; and [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (e) no application under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 may be made by any person in relation to a public waste collector licensee, unless that person has served 14 days’ written notice of that person’s intention to make the application on the Agency. [15/2014; 40/2018]
(a) any proceedings under the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 relating to the winding up of the affairs of a public waste collector licensee; or (b) any proceedings relating to the making of an order under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a public waste collector licensee. [40/2018]
(a) the minimum amount of baseline wage and the date that minimum amount takes effect; (b) the minimum amount of overtime payment, or the manner of calculating that minimum amount, and the date that minimum amount or manner of calculation (as the case may be) takes effect; (c) the minimum amount of progressive wage model bonus and the frequency at which the progressive wage model bonus is to be paid, and the date that minimum amount and frequency take effect.
(a) different minimum amounts mentioned in subsection (1)(a); (b) different minimum amounts or different manner of calculating the minimum amount mentioned in subsection (1)(b); and (c) different minimum amounts and different frequency of payments mentioned in subsection (1)(c), for different classes of waste management workers, and may be varied from time to time.
(a) in relation to waste management workers employed (whether or not exclusively) to carry out waste collection work or waste disposal work before that effective date; and (b) where the Commissioner for Labour varies the order — in relation to waste management workers employed (whether or not exclusively) to carry out waste collection work or waste disposal work before the variation otherwise takes effect.
(a) require the licensee to produce any records, accounts and documents kept by the licensee in relation to — (i) the business that the licensee is authorised to carry on under the waste collector licence or waste disposal licence; or (ii) the payment of remuneration to the licensee’s waste management workers, (a) within such reasonable time as may be specified in the notice; (b) inspect, examine and make copies of any such records, accounts and documents so produced; and (c) make any inquiry that may be necessary to ascertain whether any provision of this Part or any condition of the waste collector licence or waste disposal licence, is complied with.
(a) the power of the Director-General or authorised officer under subsection (1)(a) to require any such records, accounts or documents to be produced for inspection includes power to require a copy of the records, accounts or documents to be made available for inspection in legible form and subsection (1)(b) applies accordingly in relation to any copy so made available; and (b) the power of the Director-General or authorised officer under subsection (1)(b) to inspect any such records, accounts or documents includes power to require the licensee or the person who produced the records, accounts or documents on behalf of the licensee or (where the records, accounts or documents are kept at any premises) any person on those premises to give the Director-General or authorised officer any assistance that the Director- General or authorised officer may reasonably require to enable him or her to inspect and make copies of the records, accounts or documents in legible form or to make records of information contained in them.
“air and ventilation networks” means — (a) all air and ventilation transmission pipelines or interconnected transmission pipelines; and (b) other devices and equipment (including pressure regulating and control valves), used or intended for, or for purposes connected with, conveying or transporting refuse or waste by air suction; “connection point” means a point situated in, or in immediate proximity to, any premises in a DPWCS area where the refuse pipeline networks are connected to the related internal assets; “District Pneumatic Waste Conveyance System” or “DPWCS” means a pneumatic waste conveyance system that is established, or required to be established, for a DPWCS area; “DPWCS area” means an area declared under section 31G(1); “DPWCS licence” means a licence granted under section 31J to — (a) establish, operate or maintain a pneumatic waste conveyance system for a DPWCS area; or (b) do any combination of 2 or more things in paragraph (a); “DPWCS licensee” means a person to whom a DPWCS licence is granted under this Act; “pneumatic waste conveyance system” means an automated waste collection system that conveys or transports refuse or waste by air suction from individual premises through a network of pipes to a central location for collection and that consists of — (a) air and ventilation networks; (b) refuse pipeline networks; and (c) related internal assets, but does not include any disposal facility; “refuse pipeline networks” — (a) means all valves, cables, pipes, regulators, apparatus, equipment or plant or station used for, or for purposes connected with, conveying or transporting refuse or waste by air suction; and (b) includes any connection point, but does not include any related internal assets; “related internal assets” means all receptacles (including screw tanks that are used for the temporary storage of refuse or waste), refuse chutes, chute chambers, pipes, valves, control cables and sensors within any premises up to but not including any connection point, that are used for, or for purposes connected with, conveying or transporting refuse or waste by air suction from within any premises to the refuse pipeline networks. [48/2018] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
This Part does not apply to any premises controlled or managed by a Town Council constituted under the Town Councils Act 1988. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) define the limits of the DPWCS area; or (b) state that a plan of the DPWCS area may be inspected at a place and within such time as is specified in the notice. [48/2018]
(a) revoke any declaration made under section 31G; or (b) modify an area declared as a DPWCS area under section 31G. [48/2018]
(a) define the part of the DPWCS area that is modified; or (b) state that a plan of the modification of the DPWCS area may be inspected at a place and within such time as is specified in the notice. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) contain either of the following unless the declaration relates to the revocation of a declaration under section 31H: (i) a definition of the area that is proposed to be declared as a DPWCS area or the part of the DPWCS area that is proposed to be modified; or (ii) particulars as to where and when a plan of the proposed DPWCS area or of the part of the DPWCS area proposed to be modified may be inspected; and (b) specify the time (being at least 28 days after the publication of the notice in the Gazette) within which written representations with respect to the intended declaration, or intended revocation or modification of the declaration, may be made. [48/2018]
(a) establish, operate or maintain; or (b) convey or transport refuse or waste through, any DPWCS without a DPWCS licence. [48/2018]
(a) a DPWCS licence may be granted following a public tender or in any other manner that the Director‑General thinks fit; (b) the Director‑General may require any DPWCS licensee to render a payment on the grant of a DPWCS licence or such periodic payments during the currency of the licence or both of such amount or amounts as the Director‑General may determine by or under the licence; and (c) the conditions attached to a DPWCS licence may include — (i) a condition requiring the DPWCS licensee to connect, at its own cost, any premises or part thereof within the DPWCS area covered by its DPWCS licence to the DPWCS in accordance with any specifications that the Director‑General may specify; (ii) a condition requiring the DPWCS licensee to comply with any code of practice, standard of service and level of performance that the Director‑General may specify; (iii) a condition requiring the DPWCS licensee to enter into interconnection or sharing agreements in respect of any infrastructure and facilities relating to the DPWCS upon any terms and conditions that the Director‑General may consider necessary; and (iv) the right of the Director‑General in the public interest to make modifications to any condition of the DPWCS licence or add new conditions during the period to which the licence relates. [48/2018]
(a) install in, on, over, under, along or across any premises or street and inspect, maintain, adjust, repair, alter, restore, replace or remove any valve, cable, pipe, regulator, apparatus, equipment, plant or station which is or is to be part of the DPWCS; and (b) carry out any activities that are necessary or incidental to the activities falling within paragraph (a), including — (i) excavating any premises, street, sewer or drain; (ii) tunnelling or boring under any premises, street, sewer or drain; (iii) removing or using all earth and materials in or under any premises, street, sewer or drain; (iv) erecting or placing any valve, cable, pipe, regulator, apparatus, equipment, plant or station in or under any land or street; and (v) taking any other action that may be necessary to render any valve, cable, pipe, regulator, apparatus, equipment, plant or station safe and efficient.[48/2018]
(a) hinders, obstructs or delays a DPWCS licensee in the performance of its duties or anything which the DPWCS licensee is authorised, empowered or required to do under subsection (1); or (b) interferes with any works authorised, empowered or required to be done by a DPWCS licensee under subsection (1), shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [48/2018]
(a) reconstruct, rebuild, retrofit or modify, at the owner’s or occupier’s expense, any refuse lift, refuse chute, refuse chamber, refuse bin centre or refuse bin compartment (or any part or component of the foregoing) within the premises to conform to such specifications of the related internal assets as may be prescribed, or if not prescribed, as the Director‑General may require for the good working of the DPWCS; (b) maintain or operate, at the owner’s or occupier’s expense, any related internal assets according to such specifications as the Director‑General may require; (c) make or maintain, at the owner’s or occupier’s expense, the connection of the related internal assets to the refuse pipeline networks according to such specifications, and for such period as the Director‑General may require; and (d) employ or engage only persons that the Director‑General may approve to construct, reconstruct, connect, maintain the connection of, maintain or operate any related internal assets. [48/2018]
(a) is of such amount; and (b) is payable at such time or times, as the Agency may, with the approval of the Minister, by order in the Gazette, prescribe. [48/2018]
(a) the amount of refuse conveyed from the premises; (b) the cost of storage of the refuse conveyed from the premises; (c) the cost of operating, maintaining and replacing the air and ventilation networks and refuse pipeline networks of the DPWCS; (d) the cost of treatment of exhaust air generated by the pneumatic waste conveyance system to minimise any environmental nuisance. [48/2018]
Any person who digs, bores, trenches, grades, excavates, tunnels or breaks any ground with any mechanical equipment, tool or explosive within a DPWCS area or allows the person’s employee or agent to do so, without first ascertaining the location of any refuse pipeline networks that may be interfered with, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) removes, destroys or damages or causes or permits to be removed, destroyed or damaged, any part of a DPWCS; or (b) hinders or prevents a DPWCS from being used or operated in the manner in which it is intended to be used or operated, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $40,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [48/2018]
(a) carry out any works that are necessary to restore the DPWCS to its original condition, use or operation, or to replace it; and (b) recover in a court of competent jurisdiction as a debt due to the Agency all expenses reasonably incurred in doing so from the person in default. [48/2018]
(a) the Agency is satisfied that the relocation is reasonable; and (b) the owner or occupier complies with any terms and conditions that the Agency may impose, including terms and conditions relating to the payment by the owner or occupier of all reasonable costs and expenses (including compensation for any loss that may be incurred by the DPWCS licensee) necessary for the relocation. [48/2018]
“owner” includes any person having a leasehold interest with an unexpired term of at least 7 years; “pneumatic waste conveyance system” means any part or section of the pneumatic waste conveyance system, other than the related internal assets. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
No works, apparatus, fixture, fitting or other equipment used for, for the purposes of, or in connection with, connecting, affixing or fastening the refuse pipeline networks or any part of the refuse pipeline networks to the related internal assets is deemed to be a fixture or vest in the owner of the premises on or within which the related internal assets are constructed or placed. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
The air and ventilation networks and refuse pipeline networks of a DPWCS licensee are not subject to distress and are not liable to be taken in execution under any process of a court in any bankruptcy or insolvency proceedings against any person, or under or pursuant to any enforcement order, without the prior written approval of the Minister. [48/2018] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
A DPWCS licensee is not, by reason only of the fact that the DPWCS licensee is in the business of conveying or transporting refuse or waste through the DPWCS under a DPWCS licence, required to hold a waste collector licence under section 31. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
Sections 31A to 31D apply in relation to a DPWCS licensee in the same manner as those sections apply in relation to a public waste collector licensee. [48/2018] [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) an employee of the Singapore Food Agency; (b) an employee of another statutory authority; (c) a public officer; (d) an auxiliary police officer appointed under the Police Force Act 2004. [11/2019]
(a) may take any steps or measures that are necessary to ensure that the order is complied with; and (b) is entitled to recover from that person the costs and expenses incurred by the Director‑General, Food Administration in doing so. [11/2019]
(a) hawk, sell or expose for sale any food or goods of any kind; or (b) set up or use any stall, table, showboard, vehicle or receptacle for the purpose of hawking, selling or exposing for sale any food or goods of any kind, in any street or part of the street or in any premises or public place without first obtaining a licence from the Director‑General, Food Administration. [11/2019]
A person must not promote, organise or stage any temporary fair or other such function or activity without first obtaining a permit from the Director‑General, Food Administration. [11/2019]
A person must not use any building, situation or place as a private market without first obtaining a licence from the Director‑General, Food Administration. [11/2019]
(a) the licensee is suffering from an infectious disease; (b) the licensee knowingly employs any person who is suffering from or is suspected to be suffering from an infectious disease; (c) the licensee or the licensee’s assistant or employee refuses to comply with any requisition made by the Director‑General, Food Administration under subsection (1), (2) or (3); and (d) the licensee does not comply with subsection (5). [11/2019]
(a) enter into and inspect any place which is used, or which he or she has reasonable grounds for believing to be used — (i) for the sale by retail of articles of food intended for human consumption; or (ii) for the preparation or storage of such articles intended for sale; and (b) search any cart or vehicle or any basket, sack, bag, parcel or receptacle which he or she has reasonable grounds for believing to contain for sale by retail articles of food intended for human consumption and may examine any such articles therein. [11/2019]
(a) in the case of any contravention of section 33, 34(1), 37(5), 39(2) or 41(1) — (i) the person shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (ii) where the person is a repeat offender, the person shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; and (b) in the case of any contravention of section 32(1), 35, 36, 38(1), 39(1) or 40(1) or (9) — (i) the person shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000; and (ii) where the person is a repeat offender, the person shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [15/2014]
(a) has been convicted or found guilty on at least one other earlier occasion of an offence under that subsection for contravening the same provision as the current offence; or (b) has (whether before, on or after 1 April 2014) been convicted or found guilty on at least one other earlier occasion of an offence under section 42(1) in force immediately before that date for contravening the same provision as the current offence. [15/2014]
(a) on convicting any person for an offence under section 41A(1) and where the person does not satisfy the Court that the person is the owner of any money seized under subsection (9); or (b) on receiving a report in respect of any abandoned money, is to order that money to be forfeited and paid to the Singapore Food Agency. [15/2014; 11/2019]
(a) the control, regulation and supervision of markets (and anything in a market and places in the vicinity of a market) and of persons engaged or employed in a market; (b) the seizure and disposal of unwholesome meat, fish, fruit, vegetables or other food or drink exposed or intended for sale; (c) the use and management of stalls, tables or showboards set up for the sale of any goods in public streets or places of public resort; (d) specifying of streets, places and areas (or parts thereof) at which hawkers are prohibited; (e) prescribing the articles, or types or classes of articles, that may be sold from or exposed for sale in or on any stall, vehicle or other receptacle in any public street or place or by any itinerant hawker, and premises where any such article is prepared or stored and the manner in which any such article is prepared or transported; (f) the form and manner in which, and the time within which, an application for a licence or permit or an application to renew a licence or permit may be made, and the information and evidence required to be provided in connection with the application; and (g) the fees to be paid to the Singapore Food Agency in respect of applications for and the grant and renewal or late renewal of any licence or permit, and otherwise in connection with the administration of this Part, and the waiver, reduction or refund of fees charged. [11/2019]
(a) prescribe the offences under this Part that may be compounded, designate the officers of the Singapore Food Agency who may compound those offences and the maximum sum for which any such offence may be compoundable, which must not exceed one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence or $5,000, whichever is lower; (b) provide that any contravention of any provision of the regulations shall be an offence punishable with a fine not exceeding $20,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, with a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; and (c) provide for any transitional, saving and other consequential, incidental and supplemental provisions that are necessary or expedient. [11/2019]
The Director‑General may take any steps that he or she may consider necessary to remove or abate all nuisances of a public nature and may, if he or she considers that the circumstances so warrant, proceed at law against any person committing any such nuisance.
(a) any premises or part of the premises of such a construction or in such a state as to be a nuisance or injurious or dangerous to health; (b) any pool, gutter, watercourse, earth closet, cesspool, sewer, drain or sanitary conveniences in a foul state or so situate as to be a nuisance or injurious or dangerous to health; (c) the keeping of any animal, bird, poultry or carcase in such place or manner or in such numbers as to be a nuisance or injurious or dangerous to health; (d) any dust, effluvium, accumulation or deposit which is a nuisance or injurious or dangerous to health; (e) the issue of any fumes, vapours, gases, heat, radiation or smells in any premises which is a nuisance or injurious or dangerous to health; (f) any well, pool or other source, the water from which is used or likely to be used for human consumption and which is so polluted or is likely to become so polluted as to be injurious or dangerous to health; (g) any tank or receptacle or article capable of containing water or any well, pool, watercourse, ditch or low marshy ground which is injurious to health or offensive to the neighbourhood; (h) any factory or work place which is not kept in a clean state and free from effluvia arising from any sewer, drain, privy, latrine, earth closet, urinal or other nuisance; (i) any place where there exists, or is likely to exist, any condition giving rise, or capable of giving rise to the breeding of flies or mosquitoes; (j) any furnace, chimney, fireplace or other place from which is emitted smoke or other unconsumed combustible matter in such quantity or in such a manner as to be a nuisance or injurious or dangerous to health; (k) any brickfield, sandpit or any other kind of excavation which is injurious to health or offensive to the neighbourhood or is used for any purpose likely to be injurious to health; (l) any machinery, plant or any method or process used in any premises which causes a nuisance or is dangerous to public health or safety; (m) any place where there occurs, or from which there emanates noise or vibration as to amount to a nuisance; or (n) any other matter declared by this Act to be a nuisance liable to be dealt with summarily.
(a) require works to be executed or things to be done that are necessary to abate the nuisance; (b) require works to be executed or things to be done that are necessary to prevent the recurrence of the nuisance even though the nuisance has for the time being been abated; (c) require the stoppage of any work either indefinitely or until such time as the steps which may be specified in the order have been taken to abate or prevent the recurrence of the nuisance; or (d) prohibit a dwelling house from being used for human habitation.
(a) the dwelling house has not been rendered fit for human habitation; (b) the necessary steps are not being taken with all due diligence to render it so fit; or (c) the continuance of the dwelling house is dangerous or injurious to the health of the public or of the occupants of the neighbouring dwelling houses.
(a) in the case of a first conviction, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; and (b) in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.
“amended plans” means plans showing any deviation from, or any amendment or addition to, any plans of controlled works certified by the Director-General in a clearance certificate; “building” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Building Control Act 1989; “building works” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Building Control Act 1989; “clearance certificate” means a certificate described in section 46C(1) and issued under section 46E(2)(a), and includes such certificate issued under section 46E(2)(a) as applied by section 46G; “compliance certificate” means a certificate described in section 46I(1) and issued under section 46I(3)(a); “controlled facility” means any of the following: (a) an aerosol generating system; (b) an aquatic facility; (c) a disposal facility; (d) a pneumatic waste conveyance system as defined in section 31E; (e) a toilet within any publicly accessible premises; (f) any other equipment or facility prescribed in regulations made under section 111; “controlled works” means any building works, or works involving the provision, extension or alteration of any controlled facility; “design certificate” means a certificate described in section 46F(1) and issued under section 46F(3)(a); “developer”, in relation to any controlled works, means the person for whom or on whose behalf the controlled works are carried out; “environmental public health requirements” means the requirements set out in regulations made under section 111 and any prescribed codes of practice relating to the prevention, reduction or control of the spread of any infectious disease in or from, or the reduction or removal of any risk of conditions injurious or dangerous to public health being created in, any completed buildings or controlled facilities; “foundation” means that part of a building which is below or in direct contact with the ground, and through which the weight of the building and the loads acting on the building are transmitted to the ground, and includes any footing, raft or pile of the building; “plans”, in relation to any controlled works — (a) includes drawings, details, diagrams, digital representations generated from building information modelling, structural details and calculations showing or relating to the works; and (b) if prepared in electronic form, includes the medium in which the plans of the works have been stored; “registered inspector” means a person whose name is registered under section 46O(1); “site formation works” means any kind of site formation and includes earthworks for site stabilisation, the construction of foundations, basements, sub‑structures, piling, underpinning, ground anchors, trenches or any other kind of ground works; “temporary compliance certificate” means a certificate issued under section 46J(1). [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) on the first conviction, to a fine not exceeding $20,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; and (b) on a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $50,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $2,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after that second or subsequent conviction. [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) that the plans of the controlled works must be lodged with the Director-General, in the form and manner and within the time specified by the Director-General, together with any other information or documents specified by the Director-General; (b) that the person who prepared the plans of the controlled works must provide to the Director-General, in the form and manner and within the time specified by the Director- General, a declaration of the matters specified by the Director-General. [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) if the plans of the controlled works comply with the environmental public health requirements (except any requirements that have been waived in the particular case by the Director-General), approve the application and issue a clearance certificate, with or without conditions; (b) give a written direction to the developer to comply with any requirement that the Director-General may specify for the purpose of ensuring that all or any of the plans submitted to him or her comply with specified environmental public health requirements; or (c) disapprove the application.
(a) information on the key design parameters of the controlled works specified by the Director-General; and (b) any other documents and information specified by the Director-General.
(a) if the key design parameters of the controlled works comply with the environmental public health requirements (except any requirements that have been waived in the particular case by the Director-General), approve the application and issue a design certificate, with or without conditions; (b) give a written direction to the developer to comply with any requirement that the Director-General may specify for the purpose of ensuring that the key design parameters of the controlled works comply with specified environmental public health requirements; or (c) disapprove the application.
(a) is valid for such period as the Director-General may specify, which may be extended for such further period or periods as the Director-General may specify; and (b) authorises the developer to carry out, during the period of its validity, such site formation works or other prescribed works as the Director-General may specify, without the need for a clearance certificate.
(a) on the first conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000; and (b) on a second or subsequent conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000.
(a) it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that the accused knew that the controlled works deviate in any material way from the plans as so certified; but (b) it is a defence to the charge for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused did not know and could not reasonably have known of the plans. [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) the plans as so certified; and (b) the conditions (if any) in the clearance certificate.
(a) issue (subject to any conditions that he or she thinks fit) a compliance certificate if the controlled works have been completed in accordance with subsection (1)(a) and (b) (except for any non-compliance that has been waived in a particular case by the Director-General); (b) give a written direction to the developer to comply within a specified period with any requirement that the Director- General may specify for the purpose of ensuring that the controlled works have been completed in accordance with subsection (1)(a) and (b); or (c) disapprove the application.
(a) on the first conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000; and (b) on a second or subsequent conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000.
(a) to disapprove an application under section 46E(2)(c), 46F(3)(c) or 46I(3)(c) (except, to avoid doubt, any such application that is deemed to be disapproved); (b) to impose conditions under section 46E(2)(a), 46F(3)(a), 46I(3)(a) or 46J(2) on the grant of a certificate; or (c) to revoke any certificate under section 46J(5) or 46K(2), may, within 14 days after the person receives the relevant decision, apply to the Director-General to reconsider the relevant decision.
(a) confirm or rescind the relevant decision; (b) substitute or vary the relevant decision, and make any decision that the Director-General is competent to make under the provisions mentioned in subsection (1)(a), (b) and (c).
(a) confirm or rescind the reconsidered decision; or (b) substitute or vary the reconsidered decision, and make any decision that the Director-General is competent to make under the provisions mentioned in subsection (1)(a), (b) and (c).
(a) any Minister of State, Senior Minister of State, Parliamentary Secretary or Senior Parliamentary Secretary, for his or her Ministry; or (b) any public officer in his or her Ministry, to hear and determine (in the Minister’s place) any appeal under section 46L.
(a) an application to him or her under this Part; or (b) a lodgment of any document or information with him or her for the purposes of this Part, to be made through the electronic service described in section 42AA of the Building Control Act 1989.
(a) the manner and form in which the register is to be kept and open for inspection; (b) the manner of making applications by persons to be registered inspectors; (c) the qualifications of registered inspectors and their appointment; (d) the duties and responsibilities of registered inspectors; and (e) the circumstances in which the registration may be cancelled. [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
(a) remove all rank or noisome vegetation, refuse or other matter within those premises or part of those premises, or in the immediate vicinity of those premises, to such place or otherwise dispose of it at such place, as may be specified in the order; (b) cleanse the premises or part of the premises internally or externally, or both internally and externally, and if necessary disinfect it.
(a) any premises are so infested with rats, mice, insects or other vermin; or (b) there exist, in any premises, wasps, bees, hornets or other insects capable of stinging and the Director‑General is of the opinion that there is a probability, risk or danger that the persons in those premises or in the vicinity of those premises may be stung by them, or if any of those persons has been stung by them, the Director‑General may, by written notice, require the owner or occupier of the premises at the owner’s or occupier’s own expense to take any measures that the Director‑General may consider necessary, within such time and date as may be specified in the notice, for the destruction of the rats, mice, wasps, bees, hornets or other insects or vermins, for the removal of their breeding places and for preventing their reappearance.
(a) the removal, alteration or demolition of the whole or a part of the partitions or other erections or obstructions complained of; (b) the execution of any operations or structural alterations that are necessary to render the premises fit for human habitation and to guard against danger of disease.
A person must not permit a house to be so overcrowded as in the opinion of the Director‑General to be injurious or dangerous to the health of the residents of the house.
The Director‑General may provide and maintain in proper and convenient locations toilets for public use and may charge a fee for the use of those toilets or may license those toilets for such periods and on payment of such fees as he or she may think fit.
(a) any building or part of the building is without sufficient sanitary conveniences; or (b) any sanitary conveniences provided for or in connection with a building or part of the building are in such a state as to be prejudicial to health or a nuisance and cannot without reconstruction be put into a satisfactory condition, the Director‑General must, by written notice to the owner of the building, require the owner to provide the building or any part of the building with any sanitary conveniences that may be necessary for the use of persons using the building.
If it appears to the Director‑General that any sanitary conveniences provided for or in connection with a building or part of the building are in such a state as to be defective or prejudicial to health or a nuisance, but that they can without reconstruction be put into a satisfactory condition, the Director‑General must, by written notice, require the owner or occupier of the building to execute such works or to take such steps by cleansing the sanitary conveniences or otherwise as may be necessary for that purpose.
(a) with adequate sanitary conveniences sited at any locations that the Director‑General may think fit, having regard to the number of persons employed in, or in attendance at, the work premises or work place; and (b) where persons of both sexes are employed or in attendance, with adequate separate sanitary conveniences for persons of each sex, unless the Director‑General is satisfied that in the circumstances of any particular case the provision of those separate sanitary conveniences is unnecessary.
(a) make such alterations in the existing sanitary conveniences; and (b) provide such additional sanitary conveniences as may be necessary.
If it appears to the Director‑General that any building or part of the building is without any bathroom or without adequate facilities for bathing, he or she may, by written notice to the owner of the building, require the owner to provide the building with one or more bathrooms or with such facilities for bathing as the Director‑General may consider adequate.
(a) construct such drain or number of drains as the Director‑General may consider necessary in accordance with such specifications as the Director‑General may think fit; and (b) maintain and keep in a clean and sanitary condition any drain or drains so constructed or any other existing drain or drains in such land.
(a) enter with any assistants and workmen that are necessary upon any land or building; and (b) do or cause to be done any alterations, repairs, works, acts or things that are necessary for any of the purposes under this subsection.
(a) regularly clean, and keep clean and in good repair, the premises; (b) keep the premises free of conditions that may endanger the lives or health of the manager’s employees or other users of the premises; and (c) where the premises are specified premises, comply with the additional requirements relating to specified premises under this Act. [33/2020]
(a) prescribe temperature and humidity controls for the air‑conditioned premises; and (b) require the manager of the premises — (i) to install automatic devices for recording the temperature and humidity level in the premises; and (ii) to keep such records and charts of the temperature and humidity level in such premises as the Director‑General may direct for the inspection of the Director‑General. [33/2020]
The Director‑General may, in his or her discretion, by written notice, require any employer to provide for the employer’s employees, if in the opinion of the Director‑General the conditions or circumstances under which the employees work so warrant, suitable and sufficient facilities by way of mess rooms, rest rooms, canteens, changing rooms or pantries or to improve upon the same if the Director‑General considers the existing facilities inadequate.
(a) subject to any condition that the Director‑General thinks fit to impose, register any individual as an Environmental Control Coordinator or an Environmental Control Officer; or (b) refuse such registration. [33/2020]
(a) the registered person procured the registration by providing any particulars, document or information, or by making any statement or representation, to the Director‑General which is false or misleading in any material particular; or (b) the Director-General is satisfied that the registered person has contravened any of the following: (i) any provision of this Act; (ii) any regulations made under section 111; (iii) any applicable code of practice or standard of performance; (iv) any condition of the registration. [33/2020]
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [33/2020]
(a) impose any condition on the individual’s registration as an Environmental Control Coordinator or an Environmental Control Officer under section 61A(2)(a); (b) refuse the registration of the individual under section 61A(2)(b); or (c) suspend or cancel the individual’s registration under section 61A(3), may, within 14 days after the individual receives the decision, appeal in writing to the Minister. [33/2020]
(a) confirm the Director-General’s decision; (b) rescind the Director-General’s decision; or (c) substitute or vary the Director-General’s decision and make any decision which the Director‑General is competent to make under section 61A(2) or (3), as the case may be. [33/2020]
(a) designate as specified premises any publicly accessible premises (or class of publicly accessible premises); (b) designate as specified premises any of the following premises (or class of premises) that are not publicly accessible: (i) any premises (or class of premises) owned, managed or occupied by the Government or a statutory body; (ii) any premises (or class of premises) used, or intended to be used, for a commercial or an industrial purpose, or for mixed purposes the predominant purpose of which is either a commercial or an industrial purpose; (iii) any recreational facility or class of recreational facilities; (iv) any common property (or class of common property) of any residential premises (or class of residential premises), or of any premises (or class of premises) mentioned in sub‑paragraph (ii); (v) any premises (or class of premises) for which an environmental sanitation programme is assessed to be necessary to minimise or alleviate the risk of, or to prevent or manage, an outbreak or a spread of any infectious disease; (c) designate any class, description or type of specified premises for which an Environmental Control Coordinator must be appointed; and (d) designate any class, description or type of specified premises for which an Environmental Control Officer must be appointed. [33/2020]
(a) where the specified premises are of a class, description or type for which an Environmental Control Coordinator must be appointed — appoint a registered Environmental Control Coordinator as the Environmental Control Coordinator for that specified premises; or (b) where the specified premises are of a class, description or type for which an Environmental Control Officer must be appointed — appoint a registered Environmental Control Officer as the Environmental Control Officer for that specified premises. [33/2020]
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [33/2020]
(a) develop an environmental sanitation programme for the specified premises; (b) where the Director-General requires the environmental sanitation programme to be amended, amend that environmental sanitation programme in the manner directed by the Director‑General in writing; (c) review and update the environmental sanitation programme in the manner required by the applicable codes of practice or standards of performance; (d) submit the developed, amended or updated (as the case may be) environmental sanitation programme to the manager of the specified premises; (e) monitor the implementation of the developed, amended or updated (as the case may be) environmental sanitation programme; (f) identify and notify the manager of any default in the implementation of the environmental sanitation programme; and (g) recommend remedial measures to address any default in the implementation of the environmental sanitation programme. [33/2020]
(a) endorse and submit to the Director-General the environmental sanitation programme mentioned in subsection (1)(d) (or, where section 62A(4) applies, the environmental sanitation programme developed, amended or updated (as the case may be) by the manager in the manager’s capacity as the Environmental Control Coordinator or Environmental Control Officer for the specified premises); (b) implement that environmental sanitation programme upon endorsing it; and (c) implement any remedial measures recommended under subsection (1)(g). [33/2020]
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [33/2020]
(a) the use of the relevant premises or the operation of the relevant vehicle is likely to endanger the health of any person and the directive is necessary to prevent or manage that risk; or (b) the directive is necessary to prevent or manage the outbreak or spread of any infectious disease. [33/2020]
(a) where the directive applies to any relevant premises — the manager of those premises; (b) where the directive applies to any relevant vehicle — the operator of that vehicle. [33/2020]
(a) close the relevant premises, or any part of the relevant premises, for a period not exceeding 14 days for the purpose of cleaning or disinfecting the relevant premises, or any part of the relevant premises; (b) clean or disinfect the relevant premises or the relevant vehicle in the manner and within the time specified in the directive; (c) provide every individual who is to carry out the cleaning or disinfecting of the relevant premises or relevant vehicle with appropriate personal protective equipment, and ensure that the individual wears the personal protective equipment when carrying out the cleaning or disinfecting work. [33/2020]
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [33/2020]
(a) the Director-General may without warrant and with such force as may be necessary, enter the relevant premises or the relevant vehicle and take or cause to be taken any steps which the Director‑General considers to be necessary to secure compliance with the directive; and (b) the responsible person is liable for any costs and expenses incurred by the Director‑General in exercise of the powers conferred under paragraph (a). [33/2020]
(a) inspect any specified premises, for the purposes of administering or enforcing section 62A or 62B or ascertaining whether that section has been complied with; or (b) inspect any premises or public service vehicle in respect of which a directive is given under section 62C(1), for the purpose of ascertaining whether the directive has been complied with. [33/2020]
(a) relate to any matter which the Director‑General or authorised officer considers necessary for the purposes of administering or enforcing section 62A or 62B or ascertaining whether that section has been complied with; and (b) are — (i) within the knowledge of the Environmental Control Coordinator or Environmental Control Officer; or (ii) in the custody or under the control of the Environmental Control Coordinator or Environmental Control Officer. [33/2020]
(a) to require the Environmental Control Coordinator or Environmental Control Officer to provide an explanation of the document or information; (b) if the information is recorded otherwise than in legible form, to require the information to be made available in legible form to the Director‑General or an authorised officer appointed under section 3(2); and (c) if the document or information is not provided, to require the Environmental Control Coordinator or Environmental Control Officer to state, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, where it is and how it may be obtained.[33/2020]
Sections 60 to 62D apply to any premises owned, managed or occupied by the Government and any public service vehicle owned or operated by the Government. [33/2020]
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [33/2020]
(a) it appears to the Director‑General that — (i) the use or operation of the relevant aquatic facility is likely to endanger the health of any person and the cessation is necessary to prevent or manage that risk; or (ii) the cessation is necessary to prevent or manage the outbreak or spread of any infectious disease; or (b) in the case where the relevant aquatic facility is a licensable aquatic facility, the Director‑General is satisfied that any of the following (called in this section the applicable requirement) has been contravened in respect of the relevant aquatic facility: (i) any provision of this Part; (ii) any regulations made under section 111 in relation to licensable aquatic facilities; (iii) any condition of the aquatic facility licence for the relevant aquatic facility. [33/2020]
(a) the taking and analysis of any materials (whether solid, liquid, gaseous or vapour) found in or on the relevant aquatic facility; (b) the cleaning or disinfecting of the relevant aquatic facility; (c) the conducting of investigations relating to the relevant aquatic facility or any outbreak, suspected outbreak or spread of any infectious disease; and (d) the implementation of remedial measures in relation to the relevant aquatic facility. [33/2020]
(a) where the cessation notice is issued under subsection (1)(a)(i) — the use or operation of the relevant aquatic facility is no longer likely to endanger the health of any person; (b) where the cessation notice is issued under subsection (1)(a)(ii) — the cessation of the use or operation of the relevant aquatic facility is no longer necessary to prevent or manage the outbreak or spread of any infectious disease; or (c) where the cessation notice is issued under subsection (1)(b) — the Director‑General is satisfied that the responsible person is no longer in contravention of the applicable requirement. [33/2020]
(a) inspect any aquatic facility for the purposes of administering or enforcing this Part or ascertaining whether this Part has been complied with; and (b) take and retain samples of any materials (whether solid, liquid, gaseous or vapour) found in or on the aquatic facility for analysis. [33/2020]
(a) relate to any matter which the Director‑General or authorised officer considers necessary for the purposes of administering or enforcing this Part or ascertaining whether this Part has been complied with; and (b) are — (i) within the knowledge of the owner or occupier; or (ii) in the custody or under the control of the owner or occupier. [33/2020]
(a) to require the owner or occupier to provide an explanation of the document or information; (b) if the information is recorded otherwise than in legible form, to require the information to be made available in legible form to the Director‑General or an authorised officer appointed under section 3(2); and (c) if the document or information is not provided, to require the owner or occupier to state, to the best of the knowledge and belief of the owner or occupier, where it is and how it may be obtained. [33/2020]
This Part applies to any aquatic facility owned, managed or operated by the Government. [33/2020]
(a) subject to any condition that the Director‑General thinks fit to impose, register the registrable aerosol‑generating system; or (b) refuse such registration. [33/2020]
(a) the registered owner or occupier procured the registration by providing any particulars, document or information, or by making any statement or representation, to the Director‑General which is false or misleading in any material particular; or (b) the Director-General is satisfied that the registered owner or occupier has contravened any of the following: (i) any provision of this Part; (ii) any regulations made under section 111 in relation to registrable aerosol‑generating systems; (iii) any condition of the registration. [33/2020]
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000; and (b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [33/2020]
(a) it appears to the Director-General that — (i) the use or operation of the relevant aerosol‑generating system is likely to endanger the health of any person and the cessation is necessary to prevent or manage that risk; or (ii) the cessation is necessary to prevent or manage the outbreak or spread of any infectious disease; or (b) in the case where the relevant aerosol‑generating system is a registrable aerosol‑generating system, the Director‑General is satisfied that any of the following (called in this section the applicable requirement) has been contravened in respect of the relevant aerosol‑generating system: (i) any provision of this Part; (ii) any regulations made under section 111 in relation to registrable aerosol‑generating systems; (iii) any condition of the registration of the relevant aerosol‑generating system. [33/2020]
(a) the taking and analysis of any materials (whether solid, liquid, gaseous or vapour) found in or on the relevant aerosol‑generating system; (b) the cleaning or disinfecting of the relevant aerosol‑generating system; (c) the conducting of investigations relating to the relevant aerosol‑generating system or any outbreak, suspected outbreak or spread of any infectious disease; and (d) the implementation of remedial measures in relation to the relevant aerosol‑generating system. [33/2020]
(a) where the cessation notice is issued under subsection (1)(a)(i) — the use or operation of the relevant aerosol‑generating system is no longer likely to endanger the health of any person; (b) where the cessation notice is issued under subsection (1)(a)(ii) — the cessation of the use or operation of the relevant aerosol‑generating system is no longer necessary to prevent or manage the outbreak or spread of any infectious disease; or (c) where the cessation notice is issued under subsection (1)(b) — the Director‑General is satisfied that the responsible person is no longer in contravention of the applicable requirement. [33/2020]
(a) inspect any aerosol-generating system for the purposes of administering or enforcing this Part or ascertaining whether this Part has been complied with; and (b) take and retain samples of any materials (whether solid, liquid, gaseous or vapour) found in or on the aerosol‑generating system for analysis. [33/2020]
(a) relate to any matter which the Director‑General or authorised officer considers necessary for the purposes of administering or enforcing this Part or ascertaining whether this Part has been complied with; and (b) are — (i) within the knowledge of the owner or occupier; or (ii) in the custody or under the control of the owner or occupier. [33/2020]
(a) to require the owner or occupier to provide an explanation of the document or information; (b) if the information is recorded otherwise than in legible form, to require the information to be made available in legible form to the Director‑General or an authorised officer appointed under section 3(2); and (c) if the document or information is not provided, to require the owner or occupier to state, to the best of the knowledge and belief of the owner or occupier, where it is and how it may be obtained. [33/2020]
This Part applies to any aerosol‑generating system owned, managed or operated by the Government. [33/2020]
A person must not establish, use, manage, operate or run any premises as a funeral parlour, cemetery or crematoria without first obtaining a licence from the Director‑General.
No corpse in an advanced stage of decomposition may be received into any funeral parlour unless encoffined in a hermetically sealed coffin.
The Agency may provide suitable places to be used as public cemeteries and crematoria and must make proper provisions for maintaining them.
(a) the corpse in respect of the unlawful interment of which the person has been convicted from the place in which it has been buried to a lawful burial ground; and (b) any structure which has been erected at the place.
(a) burials in any cemetery or place of burial should be wholly discontinued; (b) the cremation of corpses in any crematorium or any place used for the cremation of corpses should be wholly discontinued; or (c) any cemetery or place of burial, crematorium or any place used for the cremation of corpses or any part thereof is being used in contravention of any condition of the licence granted in respect of the cemetery or crematorium, the Director‑General may order the cemetery or crematorium or any part thereof to be closed and may revoke the licence thereof and thereafter it is not lawful to use the cemetery or crematorium or part thereof (as the case may be) as a place for the burial or cremation of corpses.
(a) by a notice from the Director‑General under section 73; (b) by order of a Magistrate, Coroner or Commissioner of Police for the purpose of judicial inquiry; (c) by written permission granted for that purpose by the Director‑General; and (d) by the Director‑General for the purpose of using the place where the corpse is buried for the burial of another corpse.
“authorised officer” means an individual appointed under section 31W(2) by the Director‑General, Food Administration to be an authorised officer; “general appearance”, in relation to water suitable for drinking, includes the colour and clarity of the water; “provide”, in relation to water suitable for drinking, means to convey, distribute, produce, supply, offer to provide or otherwise make available, in the course of business and whether or not carried on for profit, the water — (a) to the public, or a section of the public, at a public place, any common area of any residential premises, or any other place, premises or area; and (b) by using any reticulation system, storage tank, container, hose, water fitting, generator, tanker, truck or any other system, facility, equipment or vehicle, but does not include — (c) any sale of water suitable for drinking that is regulated under the Sale of Food Act 1973; (d) any supply to a vessel of water suitable for drinking that is regulated under the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore Act 1996; (e) any provision to a Singapore ship of water suitable for drinking that is regulated under the Merchant Shipping Act 1995; (f) any provision of water suitable for drinking solely to the Public Utilities Board; and (g) any other provision of water prescribed by the Minister charged with the responsibility for food safety by order in the Gazette, as not being the provision of water suitable for drinking; “Public Utilities Board” means the Public Utilities Board continued under section 3 of the Public Utilities Act 2001; “water provider” means a person who provides water suitable for drinking; “water suitable for drinking” means — (a) potable water; and (b) any water held out by a water provider as potable water, but does not include any water intended for consumption solely by animals. [11/2018; 11/2019]
(a) conforms to the prescribed requirements concerning the quality, purity and general appearance of water suitable for drinking; and (b) does not, based on any prescribed methodology or assessment, contain any contaminant, substance or organism, either alone or in any combination, at a concentration or value that constitutes a potential danger to human health. [11/2018]
(a) incorporate by reference any document relating to such methodology or assessment that is — (i) issued or approved; and (ii) in force or published at a particular time, or from time to time, (a) by any organisation or other person whose purposes relate to public health; and (b) provide for the Director‑General, Food Administration to specify any other methodology or assessment. [11/2018; 11/2019]
(a) comply with the requirements relating to the composition, type and specifications of any container or other package in which the water is provided or is to be provided (called in this section the water packaging); (b) comply with the requirements relating to the way in which the water provided or to be provided is presented, including requirements relating to the labels that may be affixed on the water packaging and information that must accompany the water packaging (whether on the label, printed on the water packaging or on an accompanying document); (c) comply with the requirements relating to the risk assessment and risk management measures that are or are to be used in order to minimise the likelihood of the water becoming polluted and unwholesome; (d) comply with the requirements relating to the sampling and testing of the water; (e) provide to the Director‑General, Food Administration any information that the Director‑General, Food Administration may require relating to the water provided or to be provided; (f) carry out any remedial measures that the Director‑General, Food Administration may require; and (g) comply with any other requirement (as may be prescribed) for the purposes of keeping the water unpolluted and wholesome. [11/2018; 11/2019]
(a) search the premises and take possession of anything found in those premises; (b) require the production of, and take and retain extracts from or copies of, records, certificates, notices and documents (wherever and by whoever they are kept); (c) take and retain samples of any materials (whether solid, liquid, gaseous or vapour) found for the purpose of analysis; (d) take any photographs or video recordings that the authorised officer thinks necessary; (e) require any person whom the authorised officer finds in the premises to produce the person’s identity card or other identification papers for inspection. [11/2018]
(a) to ascertain whether the requirements imposed by or under this Part are complied with; (b) to investigate a suspected offence under this Part. [11/2018]
(a) prescribe the offences under this Part that may be compounded, designate the officers of the Singapore Food Agency who may compound those offences and the maximum sum for which any such offence may be compoundable, which must not exceed one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence or $5,000, whichever is lower; (b) provide that any contravention of any provision of the regulations shall be an offence punishable with a fine not exceeding $20,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, with a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; (c) prescribe the fees to be paid to the Singapore Food Agency in connection with the administration of this Part, and the waiver, reduction or refund of fees charged; and (d) provide for any transitional, saving and other consequential, incidental and supplemental provisions that are necessary or expedient. [11/2019]
The purpose of this Part is to regulate and upgrade cleaning standards and productivity in the cleaning industry in Singapore by licensing cleaning businesses with requirements for the training of cleaners and the payment of progressive wages to cleaners that ensure a more engaged cleaning workforce and the retention of a core of resident cleaners. [15/2014]
(a) by contract of service, the person employs 2 or more individuals as cleaners to perform the cleaning work; (b) the person, having — (i) to achieve a stated result or outcome; and (ii) to supply all or substantially all of the plant or equipment or the tools of trade needed to perform the cleaning work, (b) by contract (whether or not a contract of service) engages 2 or more individuals to perform the cleaning work; or (c) being a principal contractor, the person engages by contract (other than a contract of service) any person mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) to provide cleaning work to other persons. [15/2014]
(a) a person (A) enters into or renews any contract (other than a contract of service) with another person (B) for cleaning work to be performed by cleaners engaged or employed by B on premises or any public place owned, occupied or managed by A; and (b) B does not hold a valid cleaning business licence as required by section 80D, then, whether or not any criminal proceedings are instituted against B, A shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. [15/2014]
(a) be made to the Director‑General in any form and manner that the Director‑General may require; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (aa) state the class of cleaning business licence that is being applied for; and [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (b) be accompanied by — (i) the prescribed application fee (if any); (ii) a progressive wage plan in respect of the applicant’s cleaning business that complies with the prescribed requirements; and [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (iii) any other particulars, information and documents that the Director‑General may require. [15/2014]
(a) the applicant is a company registered under the Companies Act 1967, a limited liability partnership registered under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005, a sole proprietorship or firm registered under the Business Names Registration Act 2014, a society registered under the Societies Act 1966 or an entity having a business or corporate structure that may be prescribed; (b) [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (c) the progressive wage plan in respect of its cleaning business submitted by the applicant complies with the prescribed requirements; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (d) in the case of an applicant who has one or more cleaners in the applicant’s employ at the time of the application — the applicant satisfies the Director-General that such proportion of the cleaners that the applicant employs, have attended such training, and at such frequency, as the Director-General may specify for the class of the cleaning business licence that is being applied for; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (e) the paid‑up capital or (where the applicant is not a corporation) net worth of the applicant for the period specified by the Director‑General, is not less than the amount specified by the Director‑General for the class of the cleaning business licence that is being applied for (if specified); [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (f) the applicant has obtained a valid certification relating to the safety, health and welfare of persons at work in the applicant’s workplace, of a type that is specified by the Director‑General for the class of the cleaning business licence that is being applied for (if specified); and [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (g) the applicant satisfies all other prescribed requirements for the class of the cleaning business licence that is being applied for. [15/2014; 29/2014] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024]
(a) the type of cleaning business that the cleaning business licensee is authorised to carry on; (b) the paid‑up capital or net worth (as the case may be) of the cleaning business licensee; (c) the cleaning business licensee’s compliance history with — (i) the requirements of this Act, the Central Provident Fund Act 1953, the Employment Act 1968, the Employment of Foreign Manpower Act 1990 and the Workplace Safety and Health Act 2006; and (ii) any order made by an Employment Claims Tribunal under section 22 of the Employment Claims Act 2016. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024]
“corporation” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967; “Employment Claims Tribunal” means a subordinate court called an Employment Claims Tribunal constituted under section 4 of the State Courts Act 1970; “net worth” of a person means the amount by which the person’s assets exceeds the person’s liabilities. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024]
(a) conditions requiring the cleaning business licensee to enter into a contract of service in writing with each cleaner employed by the cleaning business licensee; (b) conditions requiring every contract of service entered into between the cleaning business licensee and every cleaner who is a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore (called in this section a resident cleaner) to provide for the payment of a basic wage or a progressive wage model bonus to the resident cleaner, that — (i) is not less than the amount; and (ii) in the case of a progressive wage model bonus, is to be paid at the frequency, (b) specified by order under subsection (2) for the class of cleaners that the resident cleaner belongs to; (c) conditions requiring the cleaning business licensee to ensure that every cleaner employed by the cleaning business licensee satisfies the training requirements as may be specified by the Director-General for the class of cleaners that the cleaner belongs to; (d) conditions prohibiting the cleaning business licensee from deploying any individual who is not employed by the cleaning business licensee to carry out any cleaning work, unless the individual is a cleaner employed by another cleaning business licensee; and (e) conditions requiring the cleaning business licensee to keep such records, accounts or documents relating to the business or activities that the cleaning business licensee is authorised to carry out under the cleaning business licence, as may be prescribed, and retain those records, accounts or documents for a prescribed period.
(a) the minimum amount of basic wage and the date that minimum amount takes effect; (b) the minimum amount of progressive wage model bonus and the frequency at which the progressive wage model bonus is to be paid, and the date that minimum amount and frequency take effect.
(a) different minimum amounts mentioned in subsection (2)(a); and (b) different minimum amounts and different frequency of payments mentioned in subsection (2)(b), for different classes of cleaners, and may be varied from time to time.
(a) in relation to cleaners employed (whether or not exclusively) to carry out or supervise the carrying out of cleaning work under any cleaning contract entered into by cleaning business licensees before that effective date; and (b) in any case where the Commissioner for Labour varies the order — in relation to cleaners employed (whether or not exclusively) to carry out or supervise the carrying out of cleaning work under any cleaning contract entered into by cleaning business licensees before the variation otherwise takes effect.
(a) of the terms of the proposed condition or modification; and (b) specifying the time (being at least 14 days after the date of service of the notice on the cleaning business licensee concerned) within which written representations with respect to the proposed condition or modification may be made.
(a) must be in such form as the Director‑General may determine; (b) must contain the conditions subject to which it was granted; and [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (c) is valid for the period stated therein unless it is earlier revoked under section 80J. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (d) [Deleted by Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [15/2014]
(a) the cleaning business licensee has ceased to carry on a cleaning business in Singapore; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) the cleaning business licensee has gone or is likely to go into compulsory or voluntary liquidation other than for the purpose of amalgamation or reconstruction; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (c) the cleaning business licensee no longer satisfies the requirements for a cleaning business licence referred to in section 80G(4)(a); [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (d) the cleaning business licensee had, in connection with the application for the grant or renewal of its cleaning business licence, furnished false or misleading information in a material particular, or its cleaning business licence had been obtained by fraud or misrepresentation; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (e) a circumstance which the Director‑General becomes aware of would have required or permitted the Director‑General to refuse to grant or renew the cleaning business licensee’s cleaning business licence, had the Director‑General been aware of the circumstance immediately before granting or renewing the cleaning business licence; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (f) any part of the progressive wage plan in respect of the cleaning business licensee’s cleaning business does not comply with the prescribed requirements; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (g) the cleaning business licensee has contravened any requirement or other provision of this Part or has been convicted of an offence under this Part; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (h) the cleaning business licensee has, on or after 1 April 2014, contravened any requirement or provision of Part 3 of the Employment Act 1968 relating to the payment of salary, or has been convicted of an offence under Part 3 of the Employment Act 1968 relating to the payment of salary, of any of its employees, whether or not cleaners; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (i) the cleaning business licensee has failed to comply with any notice, direction or order issued under this Part by the Director‑General or any authorised officer; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (j) the cleaning business licensee has failed to pay any fine for any offence under this Part, or any financial penalty, charge or fee charged or imposed under this Part; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (k) the cleaning business licensee has failed to comply with any condition of its cleaning business licence; or [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (l) it is in the public interest to revoke the cleaning business licence. [15/2014]
(a) suspend the cleaning business licence for any period of time (not exceeding 6 months) that the Director‑General thinks fit; or (b) impose any other directions or restrictions that the Director‑General considers appropriate on the cleaning business licensee’s cleaning business in Singapore.[15/2014] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) must be collected, and may be sued for and recovered, by the Agency; (b) is deemed to be a debt due to the Government for the purposes of section 397 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 and section 10 of the Government Proceedings Act 1956; and (c) must be paid into the Consolidated Fund upon collection or recovery, and that person’s liability to pay is not affected by its cleaning business licence ceasing, for any reason, to be in force.[15/2014; 40/2018]
(a) information contained in the cleaning business licensee’s application for the grant or renewal of its cleaning business licence or any document accompanying the cleaning business licensee’s application; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) particulars of any progressive wage plan submitted by the cleaning business licensee under section 80F; or [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (c) information the cleaning business licensee submitted to the Director‑General for the purposes of the cleaning business licensee’s application for the grant or renewal of its cleaning business licence, [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] no later than 14 days after the date of the change. [15/2014] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) require a cleaning business licensee to produce such records, accounts and documents kept by the cleaning business licensee in relation to — (i) the cleaning business licensee’s cleaning business; or (ii) the payment of remuneration to the cleaning business licensee’s cleaners, (a) within such reasonable time as may be specified in the notice; [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) inspect, examine and make copies of any such records, accounts and documents so produced; and (c) make any inquiry that may be necessary to ascertain whether the provisions of this Part are complied with. [15/2014]
(a) the power of the Director‑General or authorised officer in subsection (1)(a) to require any such records, accounts or documents to be produced for inspection includes power to require a copy of the records, accounts or documents to be made available for inspection in legible form and subsection (1)(b) applies accordingly in relation to any copy so made available; and (b) the power of the Director‑General or authorised officer under subsection (1)(b) to inspect any such records, accounts or documents includes power to require the cleaning business licensee or the person who produced the records, accounts or documents on behalf of the cleaning business licensee or (where the records, accounts or documents are kept at any premises) any person on those premises to give the Director‑General or authorised officer any assistance that the Director‑General or authorised officer may reasonably require to enable him or her to inspect and make copies of the records, accounts or documents in legible form or to make records of information contained in them. [15/2014] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) remove the particulars of the cleaning business licensee from the register; or [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] (b) indicate against the particulars of the cleaning business licensee in the register the fact of the suspension, revocation or expiry of the licence, as the case may be. [15/2014] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) hinder, obstruct or delay the Director‑General, any authorised officer or other person in the performance and execution of his or her duty or of anything which he or she is respectively empowered, employed or required to do by virtue or in consequence of or under this Act; or (b) remove any mark, line, sign or other direction drawn or set up for the purpose of this Act. [48/2018; 11/2019]
(a) reject the appeal and confirm the notice, order or decision (as the case may be) of the Director‑General, Food Administration; (b) allow the appeal and rescind the notice, order or decision (as the case may be) of the Director‑General, Food Administration; or (c) substitute or vary the notice, order or decision appealed against and make any notice, order or decision which the Director‑General, Food Administration is competent to make under Part 4 or 9, as the case may be. [11/2019]
(a) examine orally any person supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case, and to reduce to writing any statement made by the person so examined; and (b) require by written order the attendance before himself or herself of any person who, from information given or otherwise, appears to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances concerning the case and that person must attend as so required. [11/2019]
(a) any place or vehicle where an offence under this Act was committed, is reasonably suspected to have been committed, or is about to be committed; (b) any place or vehicle associated with, or relevant to, the commission or suspected commission of the offence under this Act; or (c) any thing or individual in a place or vehicle mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b). [11/2019]
(a) the name and address of the person are unknown to him or her; (b) the person declines to give the person’s name and address; or (c) there is reason to doubt the accuracy of the name and address, if given.
(a) the person provides information to a police officer, the Director‑General, the Director‑General, Food Administration or any authorised officer (including an authorised officer within the meaning of section 31W) in connection with any of his or her functions or duties under this Act; (b) the information is false or misleading in a material particular; and (c) the person knew that that information is false or misleading in a material particular or is reckless as to whether it is so. [15/2014; 11/2019]
(a) recover the costs and expenses in the manner provided in this Act; or (b) if he or she thinks fit, obtain an undertaking from the owner or occupier for the payment by any instalments that will be sufficient to defray the whole amount of the costs and expenses.
Except in any case where by reason of the act or omission complained of, an injury or danger to health subsists at the date of the complaint, no person shall be liable to any fine or penalty under this Act for any offence under this Act unless the complaint respecting the offence is made within 3 years after the date of the commission of such offence. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) delivering it to the person or by delivering it at the person’s last known place of residence to some adult member or employee of the person’s family; (b) leaving it at the person’s usual or last known place of residence or business in a cover addressed to the person; or (c) forwarding it by post in a prepaid letter addressed to the person at the person’s usual or last known place of residence or business.
(a) delivering it to the secretary or other like officer of the company or body; or (b) sending it by registered post addressed to the company or body at its registered or principal office. [48/2018]
(a) the fax number last known as the fax number for the service of notices, orders or documents on the individual; (b) the fax number used at the partnership’s business address; (c) the fax number used at the body corporate’s or unincorporated association’s registered office or principal office in Singapore. [48/2018]
(a) if the notice, order or document is sent by prepaid registered post, on the second day after the day the notice, order or document was posted (even if it is returned undelivered); or (b) if the notice, order or document is sent by fax and a notification of successful transmission is received, on the day of the transmission. [48/2018]
(a) in the case of an individual, the individual’s usual or last known place of business in Singapore; and (b) in the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), the partnership’s principal or last known place of business in Singapore. [48/2018]
(a) granted or renewed at the discretion of the Director‑General; (b) granted, renewed or refused without any reason for the grant, renewal or refusal being given therefor; and (c) granted or renewed subject to any restrictions and conditions that the Director‑General may think fit.
(a) where the licensee is a waste disposal licensee — any prescribed condition referred to in section 23A(1) or (2); or (b) where the licensee is a waste collector licensee — any prescribed condition referred to in section 31AA(1) or (2). [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) stating that the Director‑General proposes to make the modification in the manner specified in the notice; and (b) specifying the time (being not less than a prescribed period after the date of service of notice on the licensee) within which the licensee may make written representations to the Director‑General with respect to the proposed modification. [11/2019]
(a) is in breach of any restriction or condition subject to which the licence was granted; or (b) has contravened any provision of this Act, the Director-General may — (c) suspend or cancel the licence; and (d) in the case of paragraph (a), in lieu of or in addition to paragraph (c), impose a financial penalty of any amount, not exceeding $5,000, unless the breach in paragraph (a) is an offence under this Act. [11/2019] [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) the refusal by the Director‑General to grant or renew any licence; (b) the decision of the Director‑General to modify the conditions of a licence under subsection (13); (c) the suspension or cancellation by the Director‑General of any licence; (d) the imposition of any financial penalty by the Director‑General; or (e) the forfeiture of any sum deposited or bond entered into under this section, may, within 14 days of the refusal, suspension, cancellation, imposition of financial penalty or forfeiture, appeal to the Minister whose decision is final. [11/2019]
(a) as if the licence or permit were granted or renewed under any other Parts of this Act pursuant to an application to the Director‑General; (b) as if the reference to the Director‑General in this section were a reference to the Director‑General, Food Administration; (c) as if the reference to the Agency in this section were a reference to the Singapore Food Agency; (d) as if the reference to the Minister in this section were a reference to the Minister charged with the responsibility for food safety; and (e) with any other exceptions, modifications and adaptations that the differences between Parts 4 and 9 and other Parts require. [11/2019]
(a) programmes and measures relating to environmental sanitation; (b) activities and conduct of licensees and registered persons under this Act; (c) activities that relate to or concern environmental public health; (d) the cleaning, disinfection and operation of any class of premises, facilities or systems under this Act; (e) the operation of any provision of this Act; or (f) generally for carrying out the purposes of this Act.[33/2020]
(a) publish a notice of the issue, approval, amendment or revocation (as the case may be) in such manner as will secure adequate publicity for such issue, approval, amendment or revocation; (b) specify in the notice the date of the issue, approval, amendment or revocation, as the case may be; and (c) ensure that, so long as the code of practice or standard of performance remains in force, copies of that code or standard, and of all amendments to that code or standard, are available free of charge to any person to which that code or standard applies. [33/2020]
(a) a code of practice or standard of performance; (b) an amendment to a code of practice or standard of performance; (c) the revocation of a code of practice or standard of performance. [33/2020]
The Director‑General may, by written notice, require the owner or occupier of any work place or work premises to furnish the Director‑General within 14 days or a longer period that may be specified in the notice any information required by the Director‑General for the purposes of this Act.
Nothing in this Act prevents any person from being prosecuted under any other written law for any act or omission which constitutes an offence under this Act or from being liable under that other written law to any other or higher punishment or penalty than that provided by this Act except that no person may be punished twice for the same offence.
Any person who contravenes any of the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of an offence and, where no penalty is expressly provided, shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both.
(a) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the body corporate; or (b) to be attributable to any neglect on the officer’s part, the officer as well as the body corporate shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [15/2014]
(a) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner; or (b) to be attributable to any neglect on the partner’s part, the partner as well as the partnership shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [15/2014]
(a) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; or (b) to be attributable to any neglect on the part of such an officer or member, the officer or member as well as the unincorporated association shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [15/2014]
“body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership which has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “officer” — (a) in relation to a body corporate, means any director, partner, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; or (b) in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, or any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of a committee and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner. [15/2014]
(a) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; (b) $5,000. [15/2014]
Despite any provision to the contrary in the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, a District Court and a Magistrate’s Court have jurisdiction to try any offence under this Act and have power to impose the full penalty or punishment in respect of any offence under this Act.
The Director-General may design and utilise any forms that he or she may think fit for any of the purposes of this Act, and may require any person to complete any of the forms for any such purpose.
(a) as if the reference in those provisions to the Director‑General includes a reference to the Director‑General, Food Administration; (b) as if the reference in those provisions to the Agency were a reference to the Singapore Food Agency; (c) as if the reference in those provisions to an authorised officer includes a reference to an authorised officer within the meaning of section 31W; and (d) with any other exceptions, modifications and adaptations that the differences between Parts 4 and 9 and other Parts require. [11/2019]
The Minister may, from time to time, by notification in the Gazette, add to, alter or amend any of the Schedules.
(a) different prescribed components referred to in paragraphs (b) and (c) of the definition of “progressive wage model bonus” in section 2, in respect of cleaners, waste collection workers and waste disposal workers, respectively; and (b) different prescribed conditions referred to in sections 23A(1) and (2), 31AA(1) and (2) and 80H(1) for different classes of waste disposal licences, waste collector licences and cleaning business licences, respectively. [Act 5 of 2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(a) an eating establishment, such as a restaurant; (b) a cut fruit shop; (c) a supermarket;
(d) a market-produce shop (including any premises used for the sale of fish or crustacean, or meat or vegetable); (e) a barbecue meat shop, except a retail food establishment that is part of a non-retail food business within the meaning of the Sale of Food Act 1973.
(a) food is prepared, packed and thereafter delivered to a consumer for his or her consumption or use; or (b) food is prepared at premises appointed by a consumer for his or her consumption or use, except a catering establishment that is part of a non‑retail food business within the meaning of the Sale of Food Act 1973. [48/2017]
[Repealed by Act 48 of 2018]
(a) the establishment, operation and maintenance of a DPWCS; and (b) the conveyance or transportation of refuse and waste through a DPWCS.
(a) either wholly or partially; (b) with or without modification; or (c) either specifically or by reference, any matter contained in any standards or codes of practice, as in force or published at a particular time or as in force or published from time to time, relating to the prevention, reduction or control of the spread of any infectious disease in or from, or the reduction or removal of any risk of conditions injurious or dangerous to public health being created in, completed buildings or controlled facilities. [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]
This Legislative History is a service provided by the Law Revision Commission on a best-efforts basis. It is not part of the Act.
Bill : 36/1968 First Reading : 3 December 1968 Second and Third Readings : 16 December 1968 Commencement : 2 January 1969 (except sections 88 to100) 1 September 1972 (sections 88 to 94, renumbered as sections 93 to 99 when the Act was revised in the 1970 Revised Edition)
Note: This Act repealed sections 65 to 119, the First Schedule and paragraph 3 of the Third Schedule of the Local Government Integration Ordinance 1963 (Ordinance 18 of 1963).
Bill : 34/1970 First Reading : 22 July 1970 Second and Third Readings : 2 September 1970 Commencement : 30 October 1970
Operation : 31 May 1971
Commencement : 1 September 1972
Bill : 30/1972 First Reading : 24 October 1972 Second and Third Readings : 3 November 1972 Commencement : 8 December 1972
Bill : 1/1974 First Reading : 4 March 1974 Second and Third Readings : 27 March 1974 Commencement : 10 May 1974
(Amendments made by section 69 read with the Second Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 27/1975 First Reading : 26 March 1975 Second Reading : 29 July 1975 Notice of Amendments : 29 July 1975 Third Reading : 29 July 1975 Commencement : 1 September 1975 (section 69 read with the Second Schedule)
Operation : 30 March 1987
Bill : 2/1987 First Reading : 26 January 1987 Second Reading : 20 May 1987 Notice of Amendments : 20 May 1987 Third Reading : 20 May 1987 Commencement : 1 July 1987
Operation : 30 April 1988
Bill : 38/1989 First Reading : 6 October 1989 Second and Third Readings : 30 November 1989 Commencement : 15 January 1990
Bill : 31/1992 First Reading : 31 July 1992 Second and Third Readings : 14 September 1992 Commencement : 1 November 1992
Bill : 41/1995 First Reading : 1 November 1995 Second and Third Readings : 5 December 1995 Commencement : 2 February 1996
Commencement : 1 March 1998
(Amendments made by section 78(4) read with paragraph 3 of the Fourth Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 2/1999 First Reading : 20 January 1999 Second and Third Readings : 11 February 1999 Commencement : 1 April 1999 (section 78(4) read with paragraph 3 of the Fourth Schedule)
Bill : 11/1999 First Reading : 8 March 1999 Second and Third Readings : 4 May 1999 Commencement : 1 June 1999
Operation : 1 August 1999
(Amendments made by section 50 read with item (4) of the Second Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 13/2002 First Reading : 3 May 2002 Second and Third Readings : 24 May 2002 Commencement : 1 July 2002 (section 50 read with item (4) of the Second Schedule)
(Amendments made by section 22 of the above Act) Bill : 10/2002 First Reading : 3 May 2002 Second and Third Readings : 24 May 2002 Commencement : 1 July 2002 (section 22)
Operation : 31 December 2002
(Amendments made by section 140 read with item (5) of the Fifth Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 6/2004 First Reading : 6 February 2004 Second Reading : 19 April 2004 Select Committee Report : Parl. 5 of 2004 Third Reading : 19 October 2004 Commencement : 1 April 2005 (section 140 read with item (5) of the Fifth Schedule)
(Amendments made by section 46 read with item (1) of the Second Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 14/2007 First Reading : 9 April 2007 Second and Third Readings : 21 May 2007 Commencement : 1 July 2007 (section 46 read with item (1) of the Second Schedule)
(Amendments made by section 7 read with item (3) of the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 13/2007 First Reading : 9 April 2007 Second and Third Readings : 21 May 2007 Commencement : 1 January 2008 (section 7 read with item (3) of the Schedule)
Bill : 18/2008 First Reading : 25 August 2008 Second and Third Readings : 16 September 2008 Commencement : 1 November 2008
(Amendments made by section 430 read with item 38 of the Sixth Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 11/2010 First Reading : 26 April 2010 Second Reading : 18 May 2010 Third Reading : 19 May 2010 Commencement : 2 January 2011 (section 430 read with item 38 of the Sixth Schedule)
Commencement : 18 July 2013
Bill : 3/2014 First Reading : 20 January 2014 Second and Third Readings : 17 February 2014 Commencement : 1 April 2014
(Amendments made by section 47 read with item 6 of the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 26/2014 First Reading : 8 September 2014 Second and Third Readings : 8 October 2014 Commencement : 3 January 2016 (section 47 read with item 6 of the Schedule)
(Amendments made by section 4 of the above Act) Bill : 7/2016 First Reading : 28 January 2016 Second and Third Readings : 1 March 2016 Commencement : 1 May 2016 (section 4)
(Amendments made by section 5 of the above Act) Bill : 15/2016 First Reading : 14 April 2016 Second and Third Readings : 9 May 2016 Commencement : 10 June 2016 (section 5)
(Amendments made by section 24 of the above Act) Bill : 42/2017 First Reading : 2 October 2017 Second and Third Readings : 7 November 2017 Commencement : 1 February 2018 (section 24)
Bill : 39/2018 First Reading : 10 September 2018 Second and Third Readings : 2 October 2018 Commencement : 1 February 2019
(Amendments made by section 19 of the above Act) Bill : 4/2018 First Reading : 8 January 2018 Second and Third Readings : 6 February 2018 Commencement : 25 March 2019 (section 19)
(Amendments made by section 57 of the above Act) Bill : 5/2019 First Reading : 15 January 2019 Second and Third Readings : 12 February 2019 Commencement : 1 April 2019 (section 57)
Commencement : 27 July 2020
(Amendments made by section 475 of the above Act) Bill : 32/2018 First Reading : 10 September 2018 Second and Third Readings : 1 October 2018 Commencement : 30 July 2020 (section 475)
(Amendments made by section 28(1) read with item 50 of the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 32/2019 First Reading : 7 October 2019 Second Reading : 5 November 2019 Notice of Amendments : 5 November 2019 Third Reading : 5 November 2019 Commencement : 2 January 2021 (section 28(1) read with item 50 of the Schedule)
(Amendments made by section 22(5) of the above Act) Bill : 45/2020 First Reading : 3 November 2020 Second and Third Readings : 5 January 2021 Commencement : 1 March 2021 (section 22(5))
Bill : 31/2020 First Reading : 3 September 2020 Second and Third Readings : 5 October 2020 Commencement : 20 July 2021 (except section 7) 31 August 2021 (section 7)
Operation : 31 December 2021
Date of First Reading : 2 August 2021 (Bill No. 21/2021) Date of Second and Third Readings : 13 September 2021 Date of commencement : 1 April 2022
Bill : 18/2021 First Reading : 26 July 2021 Second and Third Readings : 14 September 2021 Commencement : 1 April 2022
Bill : 24/2022 First Reading : 12 September 2022 Second and Third Readings : 3 October 2022 Commencement : 1 November 2022 (sections 20(6) and 21(4))
(Amendments made by the above Act) Bill : 19/2023 First Reading : 9 May 2023 Second and Third Readings : 4 July 2023 Commencement : 18 December 2023
(Amendments made by the above Act) Bill : 1/2023 First Reading : 9 January 2023 Second and Third Readings : 6 February 2023 Commencement : 1 July 2023 1 January 2024
(updated on 29 August 2022) G.N. Gazette Notification G.N. Sp. Gazette Notification (Special Supplement) L.A. Legislative Assembly L.N. Legal Notification (Federal/Malaysian) M. Malaya/Malaysia (including Federated Malay States, Malayan Union, Federation of Malaya and Federation of Malaysia) Parl. Parliament S Subsidiary Legislation S.I. Statutory Instrument (United Kingdom) S (N.S.) Subsidiary Legislation (New Series) S.S.G.G. Straits Settlements Government Gazette S.S.G.G. (E) Straits Settlements Government Gazette (Extraordinary)
This Act has undergone renumbering in the 2020 Revised Edition. This Comparative Table is provided to help readers to locate the corresponding provisionsinthelastRevisedEdition.
