[7 July 1973]
ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS 2020 Ed. Section 1. Short title 2. Interpretation PART 1 PRELIMINARY 3. Appointment of Director and other officers of Central Narcotics Bureau 4. Advisory committees PART 2 OFFENCES INVOLVING CONTROLLED DRUGS AND SUBSTANCES 5. Trafficking in controlled drugs 6. Manufacture of controlled drugs 7. Import and export of controlled drugs 8. Possession and consumption of controlled drugs 8A. Consumption of drug outside Singapore by citizen or permanent resident 9. Possession of pipes, utensils, etc. 10. Cultivation of cannabis, opium and coca plants 10A. Manufacture, supply, possession, import or export of equipment, materials or substances useful for manufacture of controlled drugs 10B. Regulations on controlled equipment, material or substances 11. Responsibilities of owners, tenants, etc. 11A. Arranging or planning gatherings where controlled drugs are to be consumed or trafficked 11B. Exposing child to drugs, etc., and permitting young person to consume drugs 11C. Introducing drug trafficker to another person 11D. Instructing person to cultivate cannabis, etc., or to manufacture or consume controlled drugs, etc. 11E. Causing or procuring young person or vulnerable person to commit certain offences Section PART 2A OFFENCES INVOLVING PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES 11F. Trafficking in psychoactive substance 11G. Manufacture of psychoactive substance 11H. Import and export of psychoactive substance 11I. Possession and consumption of psychoactive substance 11J. Consumption of psychoactive substance outside Singapore by citizen or permanent resident 11K. Possession of paraphernalia for consumption, etc., of psychoactive substance 11L. Responsibilities of owners, tenants, etc. 11M. Arranging or planning gatherings where psychoactive substances are to be consumed or trafficked 11N. Exposing child to psychoactive substance, etc., and permitting young person to consume psychoactive substance 11O. Introducing psychoactive substance trafficker to another person 11P. Instructing person to manufacture or consume psychoactive substance, etc. 11Q. Causing or procuring young person or vulnerable person to commit certain offences relating to psychoactive substances PART 2B GENERAL PROVISIONS ON OFFENCES 12. Abetments and attempts punishable as offences 12A. [Repealed] 13. Abetting or procuring commission of offences within or outside Singapore 14. Offences by body corporate PART 3 EVIDENCE, ENFORCEMENT AND PUNISHMENT 15. Certificate of corresponding law 16. Certificate of analyst, etc. 17. Presumption concerning trafficking 18. Presumption of possession and knowledge of controlled drugs 18A. Presumption of possession and knowledge of psychoactive substances 19. Presumption concerning premises 20. Presumption relating to ship or aircraft 21. Presumption relating to vehicle 22. Presumption relating to urine test 22A. Proof of psychoactive substance 22B. Knowledge of psychoactive substance 23. Protection of informers 24. Powers of search and seizure 25. Powers of arrest 25A. Bail and bond 26. Power to search ship, hovercraft, etc., and person arriving in or departing from Singapore 26A. Procedure when person entitled to seized item is known, unknown or cannot be found 27. Forfeiture of controlled drugs, controlled substances, psychoactive substances and articles seized 28. Forfeiture of ship, hovercraft, etc. 29. Disposal of things forfeited 30. Obstruction of inspection or search 31. Urine tests 31A. Hair tests 31B. Oral fluid tests 32. Power of investigation of officers of Bureau 32A. Officer of Bureau to be armed 33. Punishment for offences 33A. Punishment for repeat consumption of specified drugs 33B. Discretion of court not to impose sentence of death in certain circumstances PART 4 TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION 34. Supervision, treatment and rehabilitation of drug addicts 34A. Parents or guardians to attend counselling with supervisees 35. Approved institutions and community rehabilitation centres 36. Administration of approved institutions 36A. Administration of community rehabilitation centres 37. Review Committees for approved institutions and community rehabilitation centres 38. Review, discharge and transfer of inmates Section 38A. Power to obtain information 39. Power of Magistrate to inquire into complaint of misconduct or breach of duty 40. Inmates deemed to be in legal custody PART 5 TAKING OF PHOTOGRAPHS, FINGER IMPRESSIONS, PARTICULARS AND BODY SAMPLES 40A. Interpretation of this Part 40B. Taking of photographs, finger impressions, particulars and body samples from person subject to supervision or in approved institutions 40C. Further provisions for taking of body samples 40D. Retention of photographs, finger impressions, particulars and body samples taken PART 6 COMMITTEE OF INQUIRY 41. Committee of inquiry 42. Composition of committee of inquiry 43. Powers of committee of inquiry 44. Disobedience to summons 45. Refusal to give evidence 46. Giving of false evidence 47. Evidence and procedure 48. Admissibility of evidence 49. Proceedings not open to public 50. Persons who may be affected by findings 51. Record of proceedings 52. Offence to influence or attempt to influence committee of inquiry PART 7 GENERAL 53. Jurisdiction of courts 54. Indemnity 55. Protection of persons acting under authority of Act 56. Use of weapons 57. Employment of auxiliary police officers as escorts and guards 58. Regulations 58A. [Repealed] 59. Power of Minister to amend First, Third, Fourth and Fifth Schedules First Schedule — Controlled Drugs Second Schedule — Offences Punishable on Conviction Third Schedule — Controlled equipment, materials or substances useful for manufacturing controlled drugs Fourth Schedule — Specified Drugs Fifth Schedule An Act for the control of dangerous or otherwise harmful drugs and substances and for purposes connected therewith.
“aircraft” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Air Navigation Act 1966; “approved institution” means any institution or place declared by the Minister to be an approved institution under section 35; “article liable to seizure” means any money, thing, controlled equipment or controlled material by means of or in respect of which an offence under this Act has been committed or which contains or constitutes evidence of an offence under this Act; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] “autonomous system”, in relation to a motor vehicle or vessel, means a system that enables the operation of the motor vehicle or vessel without the active physical control of, or monitoring by, a human operator; “autonomous vehicle” means a motor vehicle equipped wholly or substantially with an autonomous system (also commonly known as a driverless vehicle), and includes a trailer drawn by such a motor vehicle; “cannabis” means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis, or any part of such plant, by whatever name it is called; “cannabis mixture” means any mixture of vegetable matter containing tetrahydrocannabinol and cannabinol in any quantity; “cannabis resin” means any substance containing resinous material and in which is found tetrahydrocannabinol and cannabinol in any quantity; “Class A drug”, “Class B drug” and “Class C drug” mean any of the substances and products for the time being specified in Parts 1, 2 and 3 of the First Schedule, respectively; “Commissioner of Prisons” means the Commissioner of Prisons appointed under section 20 of the Prisons Act 1933; “committee of inquiry” means a committee of inquiry convened under section 41; “community rehabilitation centre” means any place declared by the Minister as such under section 35; “controlled drug” means any substance or product which is for the time being specified in Part 1, 2 or 3 of the First Schedule or anything that contains any such substance or product; “controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance” means any equipment, material or substance, respectively, specified in the Third Schedule; “corresponding law” means a law stated in a certificate purporting to be issued by or on behalf of the government of a country outside Singapore to be a law providing for the control and regulation in that country of — (a) the production, supply, use, export and import of drugs and other substances in accordance with the provisions of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs signed at New York on 30 March 1961; or (b) the production, supply, use, export and import of dangerous or otherwise harmful drugs pursuant to any treaty, convention or other agreement or arrangement to which the government of that country and the Government of Singapore are for the time being parties; “Director” means the Director of the Central Narcotics Bureau appointed under section 3(1); “drug addict” means a person who, through the use of any controlled drug or psychoactive substance, has developed — (a) a desire or need to continue to take that controlled drug or psychoactive substance; or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) a psychological or physical dependence upon the effect of that controlled drug or psychoactive substance; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “excluded substance” means a substance specified in the Fifth Schedule; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “Health Sciences Authority” means the Health Sciences Authority established under the Health Sciences Authority Act 2001; “Home Team Science and Technology Agency” means the Home Team Science and Technology Agency established by section 3 of the Home Team Science and Technology Agency Act 2019; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “immigration officer” has the meaning given by the Immigration Act 1959; “inmate” means a person who is detained in an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre; “manufacture”, in relation to — (a) a controlled drug, includes any process of producing the drug and the refining or transformation of one drug into another; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) a controlled substance, includes any process of producing the substance and the refining or transformation of one substance into another; or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (c) a psychoactive substance, includes any process of producing the substance and the refining or transformation of one substance into another; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “officer of customs” has the meaning given by the Customs Act 1960; “officer of the Bureau” means the Director or any person appointed under section 3 as a Deputy Director, a Divisional Director or an officer of the Central Narcotics Bureau; “opium” means any substance containing in any quantity morphine and one or more of the following, namely, codeine, narcotine, papaverine and thebaine but does not include poppy-straw which is not mixed in any such substance; “permanent resident of Singapore” includes the holder of a Singapore blue identity card and a person who holds an entry permit or a re-entry permit issued by the Controller of Immigration; “place” includes — (a) any building or structure, whether permanent or temporary; (b) any land, whether or not built on; (c) any place, whether or not enclosed, and whether or not situated underground or underwater; (d) any vessel, aircraft, train, or vehicle (whether mechanically propelled or otherwise) or any other means of transport; and (e) any part of any place mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (d); “police officer” has the meaning given by the Police Force Act 2004; “prison officer” has the meaning given by the Prisons Act 1933; “psychoactive effect” means the stimulation or depression, whether directly or indirectly, of an individual’s central nervous system, affecting the individual’s mental functioning or emotional state; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “psychoactive substance” — (a) means a substance or product that has the capacity to have a psychoactive effect on an individual if the individual smokes, administers to himself or herself or otherwise consumes, the substance or product; but (b) does not include an excluded substance; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “regulations” means any regulations made under this Act; “Review Committee”, in relation to an approved institution, means the Review Committee appointed for the institution under section 37; “senior officer of customs” has the meaning given by the Customs Act 1960; “special police officer” means a member of the Special Constabulary constituted under Part 8 of the Police Force Act 2004; “specified drug”, except for the purposes of the Second Schedule, means a drug specified in the Fourth Schedule; “traffic” means — (a) to sell, give, administer, transport, send, deliver or distribute; or (b) to offer to do anything mentioned in paragraph (a), otherwise than under the authority of this Act, and “trafficking” has a corresponding meaning; “unmanned aircraft” and “unmanned aircraft system” have the meanings given by section 2(1) of the Air Navigation Act 1966; “unmanned vessel” means a vessel equipped wholly or substantially with an autonomous system (such as an unmanned surface vehicle and a saildrone) and includes a barge drawn by an unmanned vessel; “vehicle” means any means of transport used on land, whether self-propelled or not, such as a train, motor car, bicycle or personal mobility device; “vessel” includes a floating facility; “vulnerable person” means any person who suffers from an impairment of, or a disturbance in the functioning of, the mind or brain resulting from any disability or disorder of the mind or brain which impairs the ability to make a proper judgment in relation to the commission of any offence under this Act; “young person” means any person who is below 21 years of age. [30/2012; 1/2014; 1/2019]
[30/2012]
All officers of the Bureau appointed by the Minister before 12 December 1975 are deemed to have been appointed under subsection (1).
Subject to the provisions of this Act, the powers and functions conferred upon the Director under this Act, and the duties required to be discharged by him or her may, subject to such limitations as the Director may impose, be exercised and discharged by any Deputy Director or Divisional Director of the Central Narcotics Bureau duly authorised by the Director to act on his or her behalf. [30/2012]
The Director may issue such orders not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act and the regulations made under this Act, to be called General Orders, as he or she may think necessary and expedient for the control, direction and information of the officers of the Bureau. [30/2012]
It is not necessary to publish any General Orders in the Gazette. [30/2012]
Every such committee has such functions as the Minister may determine.
Subject to the regulations, every such committee may regulate its own procedure.
OFFENCES INVOLVING CONTROLLED DRUGS AND SUBSTANCES
(a) to traffic in a controlled drug; (b) to offer to traffic in a controlled drug; or (c) to do or offer to do any act preparatory to or for the purpose of trafficking in a controlled drug.
For the purposes of this Act, a person commits the offence of trafficking in a controlled drug if he or she has in his or her possession that drug for the purpose of trafficking.
(a) have in his or her possession a controlled drug; or (b) smoke, administer to himself or herself or otherwise consume — (i) a controlled drug, other than a specified drug; or (ii) a specified drug. 8A.—(1) Section 8(b) has effect in relation to a person who is a citizen of Singapore or a permanent resident of Singapore outside as well as within Singapore where he or she is found as a result of urine tests conducted under section 31(4)(b) to have smoked, administered to himself or herself or otherwise consumed a controlled drug or a specified drug.
Where an offence under section 8(b) is committed by a person mentioned in subsection (1) in any place outside Singapore, he or she may be dealt with as if that offence had been committed within Singapore.
(a) manufactures any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; (b) supplies any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance to another person; (c) has in his or her possession any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; or (d) imports or exports any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance, knowing or having reason to believe that the controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance is to be used in or for the manufacture of a controlled drug in contravention of section 6 shall be guilty of an offence.
It is not a defence to a person who contravenes subsection (1)(d) in respect of any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance to show that the equipment, material or substance is the subject of a licence, permit or any other form of authorisation issued or granted under any regulations made under section 10B. (a) the licensing, by such person or authority as may be prescribed, of persons who intend to import or export any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; (b) the regulation and control of the import or export of any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; (c) imposing requirements for the registration of premises used in connection with the import, export, manufacture, processing, storage, distribution or supply of any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; (d) imposing requirements as to the documentation of transactions involving any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; (e) requiring the keeping of records and the furnishing of information with respect to any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance; (f) the inspection and production of records kept pursuant to the regulations; and (g) the labelling of consignments of any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance.
Regulations made under subsection (1) may, in particular, require — (a) the notification of the proposed exportation of any controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance to such countries as may be specified in the regulations; and (b) the production, in such circumstances as may be specified, of evidence that the required notification has been given, and any such equipment, material or substance is deemed to be exported contrary to a restriction for the time being in force with respect to the equipment, material or substance under such regulations if it is exported without the requisite notice being given.
Regulations made under this section may make different provisions in relation to different controlled equipment, controlled material or controlled substance and in relation to different cases or circumstances.
Regulations made under this section may provide that any person who contravenes any provision thereof shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to be punished with a fine not exceeding $10,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or with both as may be specified in the regulations.
No information obtained pursuant to any regulations made under this section is to be disclosed except for the purposes of criminal proceedings or of proceedings under or in relation to the Corruption, Drug Trafficking and Other Serious Crimes (Confiscation of Benefits) Act 1992.
used for — (a) the purpose of smoking, administration or consumption of any controlled drug in contravention of section 8(b); or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (b) the unlawful trafficking in or the unlawful manufacturing of any controlled drug. (a) be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) be liable to caning of not more than 10 strokes. [30/2012]
A person may be guilty of an offence under subsection (1) even though he or she does not supply any controlled drug to be consumed or trafficked at that gathering. [30/2012] (a) knowingly or recklessly leaves the controlled drug or drug paraphernalia — (i) exposed in any place; or (ii) in any refrigerator, cupboard, cabinet, box, chest or any other article, that is not locked; and (b) knows that any child has, or is likely to have, access to — (i) the place where the controlled drug or drug paraphernalia is left exposed; or (ii) the refrigerator, cupboard, cabinet, box, chest or other article in which the controlled drug or drug paraphernalia is located, shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
Any person of or above 21 years of age who, being in possession of any controlled drug — (a) permits a young person to smoke, administer (whether or not to himself or herself) or consume the controlled drug; or (b) does not take all reasonable steps to prevent a young person from smoking, administering (whether or not to himself or herself) or consuming the controlled drug, shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
Subject to subsection (3A), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) or (2) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (3A) If a person — (a) has a previous conviction under subsection (1) or (2) or section 11N(1) or (2); and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) or (2), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to a person who is in possession of any controlled drug or drug paraphernalia if the possession of the controlled drug or drug paraphernalia is authorised under this Act. [1/2019]
In this section — “child” means any person below 16 years of age; “drug paraphernalia” means any pipe, syringe, utensil, apparatus or other article for the purpose of smoking, administering or consuming a controlled drug. [1/2019] 11C.—(1) A person (A) who, knowing or having reason to believe — (a) that — (i) another person (B) intends to procure, whether or not for himself or herself, any controlled drug; and (ii) the possession of the controlled drug by B (or a person that B is procuring the controlled drug for) would not be authorised under this Act; or (b) that another person (B) intends, without any authorisation under this Act, to smoke, administer (whether or not to himself or herself) or consume any controlled drug, introduces B (whether or not through the use of any electronic media) to a person whom A knows or has reason to believe is trafficking in any controlled drug and is likely to supply B with any controlled drug shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
Subject to subsection (2A), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (2A) If a person — (a) has a previous conviction under subsection (1) or section 11O(1); and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
In a prosecution for an offence under subsection (1), it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that — (a) B procures, smokes, administers or consumes any controlled drug after the introduction is made; or (b) both A and B are within Singapore at the time the introduction is made, as long as either A or B is within Singapore at that time. [1/2019]
In this section, “introduce” includes giving any address, telephone number, email address or any other details of one person to another person. [1/2019] 11D.—(1) Any person (A) who, whether or not through the use of any electronic media, teaches or instructs another person (B) to carry out, or who provides information to B on the carrying out of, any of the following activities: (a) the cultivating of any plant of the genus Cannabis, or any plant of the species papaver somniferum or any plant of the genus erythroxylon from which cocaine can be extracted; (b) the manufacture of any controlled drug; (c) the smoking, administering or consuming of any controlled drug; (d) the trafficking or doing of any act preparatory to or for the purpose of trafficking in any controlled drug; (e) the importing into or exporting from Singapore of any controlled drug, knowing or having reason to believe that B intends to carry out the activity, shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
Any person who disseminates or publishes, or causes the dissemination or publication of, information (whether or not through the use of any electronic media) on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
Subject to subsection (4), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
If a person — (a) has a previous conviction under subsection (1) or section 11P(1); and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (4A) Subject to subsection (4B), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (2) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to both. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (4B) If a person — (a) has a previous conviction under subsection (2) or section 11P(2); and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (2), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than one year and not more than 5 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
In a prosecution for an offence under subsection (1), it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove, in relation to any activity mentioned in that subsection for which B is taught, instructed or provided with information, that — (a) B carries out the activity after B is so taught, instructed or provided with information; or (b) both A and B are within Singapore at the time when B is so taught, instructed or provided with information, as long as either A or B is within Singapore at that time. [1/2019]
Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to A teaching or instructing B to carry out, or providing information to B on the carrying out of, any activity mentioned in that subsection if the teaching, instructing or provision of information is authorised under this Act. [1/2019]
It is a defence to a charge under subsection (1) if A who teaches or instructs B to carry out, or provides information to B on the carrying out of, any activity mentioned in that subsection proves, on a balance of probabilities, that the teaching, instructing or provision of information has a legitimate purpose related to the administration of justice, the investigation and prosecution of offences, or to science, medicine, education or art. [1/2019]
Subsection (2) does not apply in relation to any dissemination or publication of information on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in subsection (1) if the dissemination or publication of information is authorised under this Act. [1/2019]
It is a defence to a charge under subsection (2) if the person who disseminates or publishes information on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in subsection (1) proves, on a balance of probabilities, that the dissemination or publication of information has a legitimate purpose related to the administration of justice, the investigation and prosecution of offences, or to science, medicine, education or art. [1/2019] procures any young person or vulnerable person to commit any offence under section 5(1) or 7 shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (a) to traffic in a psychoactive substance; (b) to offer to traffic in a psychoactive substance; or (c) to do or offer to do any act preparatory to or for the purpose of trafficking in a psychoactive substance.
For the purposes of this Act, a person commits the offence of trafficking in a psychoactive substance if he or she has in his or her possession that psychoactive substance for the purpose of trafficking.
Subject to subsections (4) and (5), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years and shall also be liable to a fine of not less than $4,000 and not more than $10,000.
Subject to subsection (5), where a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (1) or section 11H(1); or (ii) under section 5(1) or 7, at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years and shall also be liable to a fine of not less than $8,000 and not more than $20,000.
If a person of or above 21 years of age is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) and the intended recipient of the psychoactive substance which is, or is to be, trafficked is a young person or a vulnerable person, that person so convicted shall be punished with — (a) imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) not less than 4 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused intended or believed that the psychoactive substance would be used for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 5 years and not more than 20 years and shall also be liable to a fine of not less than $10,000 and not more than $20,000.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused manufactured the psychoactive substance for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
Subject to subsections (3) and (4), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 20 years and shall also be liable to a fine of not less than $6,000 and not more than $20,000.
Subject to subsection (4), where a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (1) or section 11F(1); or (ii) under section 5(1) or 7, at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years and shall also be liable to a fine of not less than $8,000 and not more than $20,000.
If a person of or above 21 years of age is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) and the intended recipient of the psychoactive substance which is, or is to be, trafficked is a young person or a vulnerable person, that person so convicted shall be punished with — (a) imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) not less than 4 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused imported or exported the psychoactive substance for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (a) have in his or her possession a psychoactive substance; or (b) smoke, administer to himself or herself or otherwise consume, a psychoactive substance.
Subject to subsection (3), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1)(a) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to both.
If a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (1)(a); or (ii) under section 8(a), at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1)(a), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years and shall also be liable to a fine not exceeding $20,000.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1)(a), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused had the psychoactive substance in his or her possession for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] 11J.—(1) Section 11I(1)(b) has effect in relation to a person who is a citizen of Singapore or a permanent resident of Singapore outside as well as within Singapore where he or she is found as a result of urine tests conducted under section 31(4)(b) to have smoked, administered to himself or herself or otherwise consumed a psychoactive substance.
Where an offence under section 11I(1)(b) is committed by a person mentioned in subsection (1) in any place outside Singapore, he or she may be dealt with as if that offence had been committed within Singapore. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] 11K.—(1) Except as authorised by this Act, it shall be an offence for a person to have in his or her possession any pipe, syringe, utensil, apparatus or other article intended for the smoking, administration or consumption of a psychoactive substance in contravention of section 11I(1)(b).
A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (a) the purpose of smoking, administration or consumption of any psychoactive substance in contravention of section 11I(1)(b); or (b) the unlawful trafficking in or the unlawful manufacturing of any psychoactive substance.
A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall be liable on conviction to a fine of not less than $2,000 and not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term of not less than 12 months and not more than 5 years or to both. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] administered or consumed in contravention of section 11I(1)(b) or unlawfully trafficked at that gathering shall be guilty of an offence.
Subject to subsection (3), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction — (a) be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) be liable to caning of not more than 10 strokes.
If a person of or above 21 years of age is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) and the gathering consists of any young person or vulnerable person, that person so convicted shall be punished with — (a) imprisonment for a term of not less than 5 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) not less than 3 strokes and not more than 10 strokes of the cane.
A person may be guilty of an offence under subsection (1) even though he or she does not supply any psychoactive substance to be consumed or trafficked at that gathering. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (a) knowingly or recklessly leaves the psychoactive substance or paraphernalia — (i) exposed in any place; or (ii) in any refrigerator, cupboard, cabinet, box, chest or any other article, that is not locked; and (b) knows that any child has, or is likely to have, access to — (i) the place where the psychoactive substance or paraphernalia is left exposed; or (ii) the refrigerator, cupboard, cabinet, box, chest or other article in which the psychoactive substance or paraphernalia is located.
A person of or above 21 years of age shall be guilty of an offence if the person, being in possession of any psychoactive substance — (a) permits a young person to smoke, administer (whether or not to himself or herself) or consume the psychoactive substance; or (b) does not take all reasonable steps to prevent a young person from smoking, administering (whether or not to himself or herself) or consuming the psychoactive substance.
Subject to subsection (4), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) or (2) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years.
If a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (1) or (2); or (ii) under section 11B(1) or (2), at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) or (2), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years.
Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to a person who is in possession of any psychoactive substance or paraphernalia if the possession of the psychoactive substance or paraphernalia is authorised under this Act.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1) in relation to the possession of a psychoactive substance, it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused had the psychoactive substance in his or her possession for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption.
In this section — “child” means any person below 16 years of age; “paraphernalia” means any pipe, syringe, utensil, apparatus or other article for the purpose of smoking, administering or consuming a psychoactive substance. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] 11O.—(1) A person (A) who, knowing or having reason to believe — (a) that — (i) another person (B) intends to procure, whether or not for himself or herself, any psychoactive substance; and (ii) the possession of the psychoactive substance by B (or a person that B is procuring the psychoactive substance for) would not be authorised under this Act; or (b) that another person (B) intends, without any authorisation under this Act, to smoke, administer (whether or not to himself or herself) or consume any psychoactive substance, introduces B (whether or not through the use of any electronic media) to a person whom A knows or has reason to believe is trafficking in any psychoactive substance and is likely to supply B with any psychoactive substance, shall be guilty of an offence.
Subject to subsection (3), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years.
If a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (1); or (ii) under section 11C(1), at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years.
In a prosecution for an offence under subsection (1), it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that — (a) B procures, smokes, administers or consumes any psychoactive substance in contravention of section 11I(1)(b) after the introduction is made; or (b) both A and B are within Singapore at the time the introduction is made, as long as either A or B is within Singapore at that time.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1)(a), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused believed that B intended to procure the psychoactive substance for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption.
In this section, “introduce” includes giving any address, telephone number, email address or any other details of one person to another person. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] 11P.—(1) A person (A) who, whether or not through the use of any electronic media, teaches or instructs another person (B) to carry out, or who provides information to B on the carrying out of, any of the following activities: (a) the manufacture of any psychoactive substance; (b) the smoking, administering or consuming of any psychoactive substance; (c) the trafficking or doing of any act preparatory to or for the purpose of trafficking in any psychoactive substance; (d) the importing into or exporting from Singapore of any psychoactive substance, knowing or having reason to believe that B intends to carry out the activity, shall be guilty of an offence.
A person who disseminates or publishes, or causes the dissemination or publication of, information (whether or not through the use of any electronic media) on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence.
Subject to subsection (4), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years.
If a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (1); or (ii) under section 11D(1), at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years.
Subject to subsection (6), a person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (2) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to both.
If a person — (a) has a previous conviction — (i) under subsection (2); or (ii) under section 11D(2), at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 7 of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; and (b) is convicted of an offence under subsection (2), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 12 months and not more than 5 years.
In a prosecution for an offence under subsection (1), it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove, in relation to any activity mentioned in that subsection for which B is taught, instructed or provided with information, that — (a) B carries out the activity after B is so taught, instructed or provided with information; or (b) both A and B are within Singapore at the time when B is so taught, instructed or provided with information, as long as either A or B is within Singapore at that time.
Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to A teaching or instructing B to carry out, or providing information to B on the carrying out of, any activity mentioned in that subsection if the teaching, instructing or provision of information is authorised under this Act.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that — (a) if the offence relates to any activity mentioned in subsection (1) — the teaching, instructing or provision of information has a legitimate purpose related to the administration of justice, the investigation and prosecution of offences, or to science, medicine, education or art; (b) if the offence relates to any activity mentioned in subsection (1)(a) — the accused believed that B intended to manufacture the psychoactive substance for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption; or (c) if the offence relates to any activity mentioned in subsection (1)(c) or (d) — the accused believed that B intended to traffic or do any act preparatory to or for the purpose of trafficking, or import or export, the psychoactive substance for a legitimate purpose other than human consumption, regardless of whether that psychoactive substance is or is not fit for human consumption.
Subsection (2) does not apply in relation to any dissemination or publication of information on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in subsection (1) if the dissemination or publication of information is authorised under this Act.
In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (2), it is a defence for the person who disseminates or publishes information on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in subsection (1) to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the dissemination or publication of information had a legitimate purpose related to the administration of justice, the investigation and prosecution of offences, or to science, medicine, education or art. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall on conviction be punished with — (a) imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) not less than 4 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
GENERAL PROVISIONS ON OFFENCES [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
12A. [Repealed by Act 1 of 2019]
(a) aids, abets, counsels or procures the commission in any place outside Singapore of an offence punishable under a corresponding law in force in that place; (b) aids, abets, counsels or procures the commission of any offence under this Act within Singapore, even though all or any of the acts constituting the aiding, abetment, counselling or procurement were done outside Singapore; or (c) does an act preparatory to, or in furtherance of, an act outside Singapore which if committed in Singapore would constitute an offence under this Act, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — (d) in relation to an offence mentioned in paragraph (a) or (c), to imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years but not more than 10 years, or to a fine of not less than $4,000 and not more than $40,000, or to both; and (e) in relation to an offence mentioned in paragraph (b), to the same punishment provided for the offence that the person aided, abetted, counselled or procured. [1/2019]
EVIDENCE, ENFORCEMENT AND PUNISHMENT
Such document is conclusive evidence that — (a) it is issued by or on behalf of the government of that country; (b) the terms of that law are as stated in the document; and (c) any fact stated in the document as constituting an offence under that law does constitute such offence.
(a) to be signed by — (i) an analyst employed by the Health Sciences Authority or the Home Team Science and Technology Agency; or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (ii) such other person as the Minister may, by notification in the Gazette, appoint; and (b) to relate to a controlled drug, controlled substance or psychoactive substance, is to be admitted in evidence, in any proceedings for an offence under this Act, on its production by the prosecution without proof of signature and, until the contrary is proved, is proof of all matters contained therein. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
(a) 100 grammes of opium; (b) 3 grammes of morphine; (c) 2 grammes of diamorphine; (d) 15 grammes of cannabis; (e) 30 grammes of cannabis mixture; (f) 10 grammes of cannabis resin; (g) 3 grammes of cocaine; (h) 25 grammes of methamphetamine; (ha) 113 grammes of ketamine; or (i) 10 grammes of any or any combination of the following: (i) N, α-dimethyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy) phenethylamine; (ii) α-methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine; (iii) N-ethyl-α-methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy) phenethylamine, whether or not contained in any substance, extract, preparation or mixture, is presumed to have had that drug in possession for the purpose of trafficking unless it is proved that his or her possession of that drug was not for that purpose.
(a) anything containing a controlled drug; (b) the keys of anything containing a controlled drug; (c) the keys of any place or premises or any part thereof in which a controlled drug is found; or (d) a document of title relating to a controlled drug or any other document intended for the delivery of a controlled drug, is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have had that drug in his or her possession.
Any person who is proved or presumed to have had a controlled drug in his or her possession is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have known the nature of that drug.
The presumptions provided for in this section are not to be rebutted by proof that the accused never had physical possession of the controlled drug.
Where one of 2 or more persons with the knowledge and consent of the rest has any controlled drug in his or her possession, it is deemed to be in the possession of each and all of them. (a) anything containing a psychoactive substance; (b) the keys of anything containing a psychoactive substance; (c) the keys of any place or premises or any part of that place or premises in which a psychoactive substance is found; or (d) a document of title relating to a psychoactive substance or any other document intended for the delivery of a psychoactive substance, is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have had that psychoactive substance in his or her possession.
Where a person is proved or presumed to have had a psychoactive substance in his or her possession, the person is presumed, until the contrary is proved — (a) to have known that the psychoactive substance has the capacity to have a psychoactive effect on an individual if the individual smokes, administers to himself or herself or otherwise consumes, the substance or product; and (b) to not believe (and to have had no reason to believe) that the psychoactive substance is an excluded substance.
The presumptions provided for in this section are not to be rebutted by proof that the accused never had physical possession of the psychoactive substance.
Where one of 2 or more persons with the knowledge and consent of the rest has any psychoactive substance in his or her possession, it is deemed to be in the possession of each and all of them. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
may be. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
Any person found in or escaping from any place or premises which is proved or presumed to be used for the purpose of smoking, administering or consuming a controlled drug or psychoactive substance is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have been smoking, administering or consuming a controlled drug or psychoactive substance (as the case may be) in that place or premises. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
[Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
[Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
[Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] 22A. In any proceedings for an offence under section 11F(1), 11G(1), 11H(1), 11I(1)(a) or (b), 11K(1), 11L(1), 11M(1), 11N(1) or (2), 11O(1), 11P(1) or (2) or 11Q(1) — (a) for the purpose of proving that a substance or product is a psychoactive substance — (i) it is sufficient for the prosecution to prove that the substance or product has the capacity to have a psychoactive effect on an individual if the individual smokes, administers to himself or herself or otherwise consumes, the substance or product; and (ii) it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that the substance or product is not an excluded substance; and (b) a person who asserts that the psychoactive substance mentioned in paragraph (a) is an excluded substance, bears the burden of proving that assertion on a balance of probabilities. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (a) knows that the psychoactive substance has the capacity to have a psychoactive effect on an individual if the individual smokes, administers to himself or herself or otherwise consumes, the substance or product; and (b) did not believe or had no reason to believe that the psychoactive substance is an excluded substance, whether or not that person knows the name or chemical composition of the psychoactive substance. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
(a) no information for an offence under this Act is to be admitted in evidence in any civil or criminal proceedings; and (b) no witness in any civil or criminal proceedings is obliged — (i) to disclose the name and address of any informer who has given information with respect to an offence under this Act; or (ii) to answer any question if the answer would lead, or would tend to lead, to the discovery of the name or address of the informer.
If any book, document or paper which is in evidence or liable to inspection in any civil or criminal proceedings contains any entry in which any informer is named or described or which may lead to his or her discovery, the court must cause those entries to be concealed from view or to be obliterated so far as may be necessary to protect the informer from discovery.
If — (a) in any proceedings before a court for an offence under this Act, the court, after full inquiry into the case, is satisfied that an informer wilfully made a material statement which he or she knew or believed to be false or did not believe to be true; or (b) in any other proceedings, the court is of the opinion that justice cannot be fully done between the parties to the proceedings without the disclosure of the name of an informer, the court may permit inquiry and require full disclosure concerning the informer.
(a) without a warrant enter and search any place or premises in which he or she reasonably suspects that there is to be found — (i) any controlled drug, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or article liable to seizure; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (ia) any vehicle, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft, unmanned vessel, component of the autonomous system of an autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel, or component of an unmanned aircraft system, which is or has been used in the commission of or in connection with an offence under this Act; or (ii) a person who has committed or is reasonably suspected to have committed any offence under this Act or any arrestable offence under the regulations; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (b) search any person found in that place or premises; and (c) seize and detain all of the following which is found in that place or premises: (i) any drug or substance that the officer reasonably suspects is a controlled drug, controlled substance, or psychoactive substance; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (ii) any article that the officer reasonably suspects is an article liable to seizure; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (iii) any vehicle, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft, unmanned vessel, component of the autonomous system of an autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel, or component of an unmanned aircraft system, that the officer reasonably suspects is, has been or is intended to be, used in the commission of or in connection with an offence under this Act. [30/2012; 1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
For the purpose of exercising his or her power under this section, an officer may, with such assistance as he or she considers necessary, break open any door, window, lock, fastener, floor, wall, ceiling, compartment, box, container or any other thing.
[Deleted by Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] [30/2012]
any person who has committed or whom he or she reasonably suspects to have committed an offence under this Act or an arrestable offence under the regulations. [1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
Any person arrested under subsection (1), together with any drug, substance or article that the officer making the arrest reasonably suspects is a controlled drug, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or article liable to seizure, must be taken to the Central Narcotics Bureau, a police station or a customs station and may be searched. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
Awoman must not be searched under this Act except by another woman.
An officer making an arrest under this section may seize and detain any drug, substance or article that the officer reasonably suspects is a controlled drug, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or article liable to seizure. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
Division 5 (Bails and bonds) of Part 6 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 applies to the release of a person on bail or on personal bond under this section or section 92 or 93 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 (as the case may be) with the following modifications: (a) any reference to “officer”, “police officer” or “police officer of or above the rank of sergeant” is to be read to include an officer of the Bureau; (b) the reference to the Commissioner of Police in
[Act 16 of 2024 wef 18/11/2024]
(a) stop, board and search any ship, hovercraft, aircraft, vehicle or train if he or she has reason to suspect that there is therein any controlled drug in contravention of this Act, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or any article liable to seizure; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) search any person in that ship, hovercraft, aircraft, vehicle or train; (ba) intercept and search any autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft or unmanned vessel if he or she has reason to suspect that there is in any such vehicle, aircraft or vessel — (i) any controlled drug or controlled substance; (ii) any psychoactive substance; or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (iii) [Deleted by Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (iv) any article liable to seizure; and (c) search any person arriving in Singapore or about to depart from Singapore. [30/2012; 1/2019]
An officer may seize and detain — (a) any drug, substance or article that the officer reasonably suspects is a controlled drug, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or article liable to seizure as a result of any search under this section; and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) any ship, hovercraft, aircraft, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft, unmanned vessel, component of the autonomous system of an autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel, or component of an unmanned aircraft system, vehicle or train that the officer reasonably suspects has been or is intended to be used in the commission of or in connection with an offence under this Act. [30/2012; 1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (2A) An officer may — (a) in relation to any autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft or unmanned vessel that is to be intercepted and searched under subsection (1)(ba), direct any person whom the officer reasonably believes to be involved in operating the autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft or unmanned vessel — (i) to end the flight of the unmanned aircraft, or land it, safely in the fastest practicable way; (ii) to stop the autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel safely in the fastest practicable way; or (iii) to fly the unmanned aircraft or to operate the autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel in the manner specified by the officer; (b) in relation to any autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft or unmanned vessel that is to be intercepted and searched under subsection (1)(ba), without warrant and with such assistance and by such force as is necessary — (i) assume control of the unmanned aircraft to fly the aircraft, or to end the flight of the aircraft, or land it, safely in the fastest practicable way; (ii) assume control of the autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel to steer the vehicle or vessel, or to stop the vehicle or vessel (as the case may be) safely in the fastest practicable way; (iii) end the flight of the unmanned aircraft, or land it, in the fastest and safest practicable way; or (iv) stop the autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel in the fastest and safest practicable way; or (c) direct any person to operate any ship, hovercraft, aircraft, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft, unmanned vessel, vehicle or train seized and detained under subsection (2)(b), in such manner as the officer determines. [1/2019]
[Deleted by Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] [30/2012; 1/2019] item, or any person authorised by the owner. [1/2019]
If the owner of any seized item is known, a relevant officer must notify the owner to claim the seized item, and such notification may be given — (a) by posting a written notice to the owner of the seized item at the owner’s usual or last known place of residence or business in Singapore; or (b) in such other manner as the relevant officer thinks expedient. [1/2019]
If the owner or the person authorised by the owner does not claim the seized item within one month after the notification is given under subsection (2), any relevant officer may cause to be sold, or otherwise dispose of, the seized item but only after giving one month’s notice in the Gazette of the relevant officer’s intention to do so. [1/2019]
Despite subsection (3), if the value of the seized item is, in the opinion of the Director, less than $500, any relevant officer may cause the seized item to be sold or disposed of at any time. [1/2019]
If the owner or the person authorised by the owner claims the seized item after it is sold under subsection (3) or (4), the owner is only entitled to the net proceeds. [1/2019]
If the owner of a seized item is unknown or cannot be found, a relevant officer must issue a public notice, specifying the seized item and requiring any person who has a claim to it to appear before the relevant officer and establish the person’s claim within 6 months after the date of the public notice. [1/2019]
Every public notice under subsection (6) must be published in the Gazette or any daily newspaper but only if, in the opinion of the Director, the value of the seized item is at least $1,000. [1/2019]
If no person establishes a claim to the seized item within one month after the publication of a public notice issued under subsection (6), and if the person in whose possession the seized item was found cannot show he or she had legally acquired it, then the seized item may be sold on the order of a relevant officer. [1/2019]
Despite subsection (8), if the value of the seized item is, in the opinion of the Director, less than $1,000, or if keeping the seized item involves unreasonable expense or inconvenience, a relevant officer may cause the seized item to be sold or disposed of at any time. [1/2019]
If no person has established a claim to the seized item within 6 months after the publication of the public notice mentioned in subsection (6), the ownership of the seized item or (if sold) its net proceeds is to pass and be vested in the Government absolutely. [1/2019]
If a person establishes the person’s claim to the seized item within 6 months after the publication of the public notice mentioned in subsection (6), and the seized item has already been sold by a relevant officer, that person is only entitled to the net proceeds. [1/2019]
This section applies in relation to any ship, hovercraft, aircraft, vehicle or train even though it was seized before 1 August 2019. [1/2019]
In this section — “relevant officer” means any Deputy Director of the Central Narcotics Bureau appointed under section 3(1) or any person authorised by the Deputy Director; “seized item” means any ship, hovercraft, aircraft, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft, unmanned vessel, component of the autonomous system of an autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel, or component of an unmanned aircraft system, vehicle or train that is seized under section 24 or 26. [1/2019]
(a) by delivering a written notice to the owner personally; (b) by posting a written notice to the owner’s place of residence; or (c) in any other manner that the officer thinks expedient. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
The notice under subsection (1) is not required to be given where the seizure is made in the presence of the offender or the owner or his or her agent, or in the case of a ship or an aircraft, in the presence of the master or captain thereof.
An order for the forfeiture of any controlled drug, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or article is to be made if it is proved to the satisfaction of a court that an offence under this Act has been committed and that such drug, substance or article was the subject matter of or was used in the commission of the offence even though no person may have been convicted of that offence. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
If there is no prosecution with regard to any controlled drug, controlled substance, psychoactive substance or article seized under this Act, that drug, substance or article is deemed to be forfeited to the Government on the expiry of one month from the date of the seizure thereof unless a claim thereto has been made before that date in such manner as may be prescribed. [1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
[Deleted by Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] [30/2012; 1/2019] Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
[1/2019]
Where a person has been convicted of an offence under this Act, the court is to, upon the application of the Public Prosecutor, order to be forfeited to the Government any vehicle, autonomous vehicle, or component of the autonomous system of the autonomous vehicle which has been proved to have been used in any manner in connection with the offence. [1/2019]
This section does not apply to any ship, hovercraft or unmanned vessel of more than 200 tons net or to any aircraft or unmanned aircraft belonging to any person carrying on a regular passenger service to and from Singapore by means of that aircraft. [1/2019]
Any ship, hovercraft, aircraft, vehicle, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft, unmanned vessel, component of the autonomous system of an autonomous vehicle or unmanned vessel, or component of an unmanned aircraft system, must not be forfeited under this section if its owner establishes that the ship, hovercraft, aircraft, vehicle, autonomous vehicle, unmanned aircraft or unmanned vessel was unlawfully in the possession of another person without the owner’s consent. [1/2019]
The Minister may, in his or her discretion and after any proceedings under this Act are concluded, entertain and give effect to any claim to or in respect of anything which has been forfeited to the Government.
(a) obstruct any officer of the Bureau, police officer, officer of customs or other public officer in the exercise of any power under this Act; (b) fail to comply with any lawful requirement of any officer of the Bureau, police officer, officer of customs or other public officer in the execution of his or her duty under this Act; (c) without reasonable excuse, fail to furnish such information in his or her possession as may be required by any officer of the Bureau, police officer, officer of customs or other public officer; or (d) furnish to any officer of the Bureau, police officer, officer of customs or other public officer any information which the person knows or has reason to believe to be false.
In subsection (1), “public officer” includes any special police officer exercising any power under section 24, 25 or 26. [1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
[Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (1A) The Director may, for the purpose of ensuring that a relevant person is no longer a drug addict, after the relevant time, order the relevant person — (a) to present himself or herself to any officer of the Bureau, immigration officer or police officer not below the rank of sergeant; and (b) to provide a specimen of the relevant person’s urine for urine tests to be conducted under this section as required by such officer. [1/2019] (1B) Any serviceman in the Singapore Armed Forces who is appointed by the Minister as an enforcement officer may, if the enforcement officer reasonably suspects a person subject to military law under section 3 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 to have committed an offence under section 8(b) or 11I(1)(b), require that person to provide a specimen of that person’s urine for urine tests to be conducted under this section. [1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide a specimen of his or her urine within such time as may be required by any of the officers referred to in subsection (1), (1A) or (1B) shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019] (2A) A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an order under subsection (1A) shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
Any person (other than a citizen of Singapore or a permanent resident of Singapore) arriving in Singapore by land, sea or air who — (a) fails to comply with the requirement of an immigration officer under this section; or (b) is found as a result of urine tests conducted under subsection (4)(a) or (b) to have consumed a controlled drug or psychoactive substance, may be prohibited from entering or remaining in Singapore. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
A specimen of urine provided under this section must be divided into 3 parts and dealt with, in such manner and in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed, as follows: (a) a preliminary urine test must be conducted on one part of the urine specimen; and (b) each of the remaining 2 parts of the urine specimen must be marked and sealed and a urine test must be conducted on each part by a different person, being either an analyst employed by the Health Sciences Authority or any person as the Minister may, by notification in the Gazette, appoint for such purpose.
Despite subsection (4), where upon conducting any preliminary urine test under subsection (4)(a), a part of a urine specimen has tested negative for controlled drugs and psychoactive substances, any of the officers referred to in subsection (1), (1A) or (1B) may either discard the remaining 2 parts of the same urine specimen or proceed in accordance with subsection (4)(b). [30/2012; 1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
A certificate stating the result of a urine test must be signed by an analyst employed by the Health Sciences Authority or any other person that the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, appoints for such purpose. [30/2012]
The certificate stating the result of a urine test may be signed by an analyst or person appointed under subsection (6) even though he or she did not personally conduct the test to analyse the urine specimen as long as the test was conducted by another person acting under his or her direction. [30/2012]
In this section, a specimen of urine may be collected from a person on different occasions within the time referred to in subsection (2). [30/2012]
In this section and section 31A — “relevant person” means — (a) any person discharged from an approved institution; (b) any person convicted of an offence, whether before, on or after the date of commencement of section 21(1)(d) of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023, under — (i) subsection (2); (ii) section 8(b), 11I(1)(b) or 31A(2); [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (iii) section 26 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 involving the consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance; or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (iv) section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 for the consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (c) any person subject to a supervision order made under section 34(2)(a) whose supervision order has lapsed; or (d) any person who — (i) after having undergone treatment and rehabilitation at approved or other institutions; or (ii) after having been convicted of an offence under subsection (2) or section 8(b), 11I(1)(b) or 31A(2) or an offence under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 for the consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance, has been subject to a supervision order made pursuant to the regulations, and the supervision order has lapsed; “relevant time” means — [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (a) in relation to a person mentioned in paragraph (a) of the definition of “relevant person”, the time the person is discharged from the approved institution; (b) in relation to a person mentioned in paragraph (b) of the definition of “relevant person”, the time the person is convicted of the offence under — (i) subsection (2); (ii) section 8(b), 11I(1)(b) or 31A(2); [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (iii) section 26 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 involving the consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance; or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (iv) section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 for the consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (c) in relation to a person mentioned in paragraph (c) of the definition of “relevant person”, the time the supervision order lapses; or (d) in relation to a person mentioned in paragraph (d) of the definition of “relevant person”, the time the supervision order lapses. [1/2019] 31A.—(1) Any officer of the Bureau, immigration officer or police officer not below the rank of sergeant may, if he or she reasonably suspects any person to have committed an offence under section 8(b) or 11I(1)(b), require that person to provide specimens of the person’s hair for a hair test to be conducted under this section. [30/2012] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (1A) The Director may, for the purpose of ensuring that a relevant person is no longer a drug addict, after the relevant time, order the relevant person — (a) to present himself or herself to any officer of the Bureau, immigration officer or police officer not below the rank of sergeant; and (b) to provide specimens of the relevant person’s hair for a hair test to be conducted under this section as required by such officer. [1/2019]
A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide specimens of his or her hair of such type and quantity as may be required by any of the officers referred to in subsection (1) or (1A) shall be guilty of an offence. [30/2012; 1/2019] (2A) A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an order under subsection (1A) shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
All specimens of hair provided under this section must be marked and sealed for hair testing in accordance with the prescribed procedure. [30/2012]
A certificate stating the result of a hair test must be signed by an analyst employed by the Health Sciences Authority or any other person that the Minister, by notification in the Gazette, appoints for such purpose. [30/2012]
The certificate stating the result of a hair test may be signed by an analyst or person appointed under subsection (4) even though he or she did not personally conduct the test to analyse the specimens of hair as long as the test was conducted by another person acting under his or her direction. [30/2012] 31B.—(1) Any officer of the Bureau, immigration officer or police officer not below the rank of sergeant may, if the officer reasonably suspects any person to have committed an offence under section 8(b) or 11I(1)(b), require that person to provide one or more specimens of the person’s oral fluid for the purpose of conducting any oral fluid test. [1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide any specimen of the person’s oral fluid as required under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [1/2019]
In this section — “oral fluid test” means a test carried out by an oral fluid testing device for the purpose of ascertaining whether any controlled drug or psychoactive substance is present in the person’s oral fluid; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “oral fluid testing device” means any device that is designed to indicate the presence of any controlled drug or psychoactive substance in the person’s oral fluid. [1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
investigation into an arrestable offence. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (1A) [Deleted by Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
In any case relating to the commission of an offence under the regulations — (a) where the offence is an arrestable offence, an officer of the Bureau has all the powers of a police officer under the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 in relation to an investigation into an arrestable offence; and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (b) where the offence is a non-arrestable offence, an officer of the Bureau has all the powers of a police officer under the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 in relation to an investigation into a non-arrestable offence. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2)(a), when an officer of the Bureau is exercising the powers of a police officer under the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, the officer of the Bureau is deemed to be an officer not below the rank of inspector of police. [15/2010]
offences under this Act are punishable on conviction. [30/2012; 1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
In relation to an offence under any provision of this Act specified in the first column of the Second Schedule (the general nature of the offence being described in the second column thereof) — (a) the third, fourth and fifth columns show, respectively, the punishments to be imposed on a person convicted of the offence according to whether the controlled drug in relation to which the offence was committed was a Class A drug, a Class B drug or a Class C drug, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b); (b) the sixth column shows the punishments to be imposed on a person convicted of the offence where the offence was committed — (i) in the case of unauthorised manufacture, in relation to such specified controlled drug as is mentioned in the second column; and (ii) in the case of unauthorised traffic, import or export or possession, in relation to a specified quantity of such controlled drug or to a controlled drug (except opium) containing such quantity of morphine or diamorphine as is mentioned in the second column; and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (c) the seventh column shows the punishments to be imposed on a person convicted of the offence whether or not the offence was committed in relation to a controlled drug and, if it was so committed, irrespective of the nature of the drug.
In the third, fourth, fifth, sixth and seventh columns of the Second Schedule, a reference to a period gives the maximum or minimum term of imprisonment as is specified, a reference to a sum of money gives the maximum or minimum fine as is specified, and a reference to a number of strokes gives the number of strokes of caning with which the offender shall, subject to sections 325(1) and 330(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, be punished. [15/2010] (3A) Any person convicted of an offence under section 8(b), 31(2) or 31A(2) that is committed on or after 1 April 2019 shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than one year but not more than 10 years and shall also be liable to a fine not exceeding $20,000, unless the person is punished under subsection (4), (4AA) or (4AB) or section 33A (as the case may be) for that same offence. [1/2019] (3B) If a person — (a) has a previous conviction under section 8(a) or 11I(1)(a); and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) is convicted of an offence under section 8(a) that the sixth column of the Second Schedule specifies is subject to this subsection, that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years and shall also be liable to a fine not exceeding $20,000. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (3C) Any person convicted of an offence under section 11I(1)(b) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to both, unless the person is punished under subsection (3D) for that same offence. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (3D) If a person — (a) has — (i) a previous conviction under section 8(b), 11I(1)(b), 31(2) or 31A(2); (ii) a previous admission under section 34(2) to an approved institution; or (iii) a previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; and (b) is convicted of an offence under section 11I(1)(b), that person shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 10 years. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
If any person who has a previous conviction under section 8(b) or 31(2) is again convicted of an offence under section 8(b) or 31(2), he or she shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years unless he or she is punished under section 33A for that same offence. [1/2019] (4AA) If a person — (a) has — (i) a previous conviction under section 11I(1)(b) or 31A(2); [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (ii) a previous admission under section 34(2) to an approved institution; or (iii) a previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance under
[Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) is convicted of an offence under section 8(b) or 31(2), being an offence which is committed on or after 1 April 2019, he or she shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years unless he or she is punished under section 33A for that same offence. [1/2019] (4AB) If a person — (a) has — (i) a previous conviction under section 8(b), 11I(1)(b), 31(2) or 31A(2); [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (ii) a previous admission under section 34(2) to an approved institution; or (iii) a previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) is convicted of an offence under section 31A(2), being an offence which is committed on or after 1 April 2019, he or she shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term of not less than 3 years unless he or she is punished under
[1/2019] (4AC) A certificate purporting to be signed by an officer authorised by the Commissioner of Prisons and purporting to relate to a person’s previous admission to an approved institution under this Act is admissible in evidence in any proceedings under this section, on its production by the prosecution without proof of signature. [1/2019] (4AD) A certificate — (a) purporting to be signed by the registrar for the subordinate military courts, or the registrar for the Military Court of Appeal, appointed under section 82(5)(c) of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; and (b) purporting to relate to a person’s previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972, [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] is admissible in evidence, in any proceedings under this section, on its production by the prosecution without proof of signature. [1/2019] (4AE) The certificate mentioned in subsection (4AC) or (4AD) is, until the contrary is proved, evidence of the matters contained in it. [1/2019] (4A) Where — (a) any person is convicted of an offence under section 5(1), 7, 11F(1) or 11H(1); and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) that person is again convicted of an offence under section 5(1) or 7, that person so convicted shall be punished with — (c) in relation to a Class A drug — (i) imprisonment for a term of not less than 10 years and not more than 30 years; and (ii) not less than 10 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane; (d) in relation to a Class B drug — (i) imprisonment for a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years; and (ii) not less than 6 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane; and (e) in relation to a Class C drug — (i) imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years; and (ii) not less than 4 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane. [30/2012] (4B) If a person 21 years of age or older is convicted of an offence under section 5(1) or 7 and the intended recipient of the controlled drug which is, or is to be, trafficked is a young person or a vulnerable person, that person so convicted shall be punished with — (a) in relation to a Class A drug — (i) imprisonment for a term of not less than 10 years and not more than 30 years; and (ii) not less than 10 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane; (b) in relation to a Class B drug — (i) imprisonment for a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years; and (ii) not less than 6 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane; and (c) in relation to a Class C drug — (i) imprisonment for a term of not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years; and (ii) not less than 4 strokes and not more than 15 strokes of the cane. [30/2012] (4C) If a person 21 years of age or older is convicted of an offence under section 11A and the gathering consists of any young person or vulnerable person, that person so convicted shall be punished with — (a) imprisonment for a term of not less than 5 years and not more than 20 years; and (b) not less than 3 strokes and not more than 10 strokes of the cane. [30/2012] (4D) The punishment provided under subsection (4A) or (4B) in relation to an offence applies only if the punishment as shown in the sixth column of the Second Schedule is not applicable in relation to that offence. [30/2012]
For the purposes of this section — (aa) a previous conviction under section 8(a) means a conviction under section 8(a) at any time before, on or after the date of commencement of section 25(1)(c) of the Misuse of Drugs (Amendment) Act 2023; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (a) a conviction under section 8(b) by a court including a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 at any time on or after 1 October 1992 is deemed to be a previous conviction under section 8(b); (b) a conviction under section 31(2) by a court including a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 at any time on or after 1 October 1992 is deemed to be a previous conviction under section 31(2); (c) a conviction under section 31A(2) by a court including a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 at any time on or after 1 May 2013 is deemed to be a previous conviction under section 31A(2); (d) a conviction under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 on or after 1 April 2019 is deemed to be a previous conviction under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; (e) “admission” means an admission under section 34(2) to an approved institution at any time on or after 1 October 1992; and (f) “convicted of an offence”, in relation to an offence under section 8(b), 31(2) or 31A(2), includes a conviction by a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972. [1/2019] (a) 2 previous admissions; (b) 2 previous convictions for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b); (c) 2 previous convictions for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2); (d) one previous admission and one previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b); (e) one previous admission and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2); or (f) one previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b) and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2), is convicted of an offence under section 8(b) for consumption of a specified drug or an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2), the person shall on conviction be punished with — (g) imprisonment for a term of not less than 5 years and not more than 7 years; and (h) not less than 3 strokes and not more than 6 strokes of the cane. (1A) Where a person who has not less than — (a) 2 previous admissions; (b) 2 previous convictions for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b); (c) 2 previous convictions for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2); (d) one previous admission and one previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b); (e) one previous admission and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2); or (f) one previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b) and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2), is convicted of an offence under section 31A(2) for failure to provide a hair specimen, being an offence that is committed on or after 1 April 2019, the person shall on conviction be punished with the same punishment mentioned in subsection (1). [1/2019] (1B) Where a person who has not less than — (a) 2 previous convictions for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (b) one previous admission and one previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (c) one previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2); [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (d) 2 previous convictions for an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2); (e) one previous admission and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2); (f) one previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b) and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2); (g) one previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b) and one previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (h) one previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972, and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2); or [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (i) one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2) and one previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2), is convicted of an offence of consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b), an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2), or an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2), being an offence that is committed on or after 1 April 2019, the person shall on conviction be punished with the same punishment mentioned in subsection (1). [1/2019]
Where a person who has been convicted under subsection (1), (1A) or (1B) is again convicted of an offence for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b), an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2), or an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2), the person shall on conviction be punished with — (a) imprisonment for a term of not less than 7 years and not more than 13 years; and (b) not less than 6 strokes and not more than 12 strokes of the cane. [1/2019]
A certificate purporting to be signed by an officer authorised in writing by the Commissioner of Prisons and purporting to relate to a person’s previous admission to an approved institution under this Act is admissible in evidence in any proceedings under this section, on its production by the prosecution without proof of signature; and, until the contrary is proved, that certificate is evidence of all matters contained in it. [1/2014]
A certificate purporting to be signed by the Registrar for the subordinate military courts or for the Military Court of Appeal appointed under section 82(5) of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 is admissible in evidence, in any proceedings under this section, on its production by the prosecution without proof of signature; and, until the contrary is proved, that certificate is evidence of a person’s previous conviction by a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal.
For the purposes of this section — (a) a conviction under section 8(b) by a court including a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 at — (i) any time on or after 1 October 1992 but before the relevant date for the consumption of a controlled drug which, on the date of any subsequent conviction, is specified in the Fourth Schedule; or (ii) any time on or after the relevant date for the consumption of a specified drug, is deemed to be a previous conviction for consumption of a specified drug under section 8(b); (b) a conviction under section 31(2) by a court including a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 at any time on or after 1 October 1992 is deemed to be a previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a urine specimen under section 31(2); (ba) a conviction under section 31A(2) by a court including a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 at any time on or after 1 May 2013 is deemed to be a previous conviction for an offence of failure to provide a hair specimen under section 31A(2); (bb) a conviction under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972 on or after 1 April 2019 for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug is deemed to be a previous conviction for an offence of consumption of a controlled drug that is a specified drug under section 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (c) “admission” means an admission under section 34(2) to an approved institution at — (i) any time on or after 1 October 1992 but before the relevant date for the consumption of a controlled drug which, on the date of any subsequent conviction, is specified in the Fourth Schedule; or (ii) any time on or after the relevant date for the consumption of a specified drug; (ca) “convicted of an offence”, in relation to an offence under section 8(b), 31(2) or 31A(2), includes a conviction by a subordinate military court or the Military Court of Appeal constituted under the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; and (d) “relevant date” — (i) in relation to a conviction or admission for consumption of diamorphine, morphine or opium, means 20 July 1998; and (ii) in relation to a conviction or admission for consumption of any drug added to the Fourth Schedule after 20 July 1998, means the date on which the amendment to that Schedule for the inclusion of such drug commences. [1/2019] (a) may, if the person satisfies the requirements of subsection (2), instead of imposing the death penalty, sentence the person to imprisonment for life and, if the person is sentenced to life imprisonment, the person shall also be sentenced to caning of not less than 15 strokes; or (b) shall, if the person satisfies the requirements of subsection (3), instead of imposing the death penalty, sentence the person to imprisonment for life. [30/2012]
The requirements referred to in subsection (1)(a) are as follows: (a) the person convicted proves, on a balance of probabilities, that his or her involvement in the offence under section 5(1) or 7 was restricted — (i) to transporting, sending or delivering a controlled drug; (ii) to offering to transport, send or deliver a controlled drug; (iii) to doing or offering to do any act preparatory to or for the purpose of his or her transporting, sending or delivering a controlled drug; or (iv) to any combination of activities in sub‑paragraphs (i), (ii) and (iii); and (b) the Public Prosecutor certifies to any court that, in his or her determination, the person has substantively assisted the Central Narcotics Bureau in disrupting drug trafficking activities within or outside Singapore. [30/2012]
The requirements referred to in subsection (1)(b) are that the person convicted proves, on a balance of probabilities, that — (a) his or her involvement in the offence under section 5(1) or 7 was restricted — (i) to transporting, sending or delivering a controlled drug; (ii) to offering to transport, send or deliver a controlled drug; (iii) to doing or offering to do any act preparatory to or for the purpose of his or her transporting, sending or delivering a controlled drug; or (iv) to any combination of activities in sub‑paragraphs (i), (ii) and (iii); and (b) he or she was suffering from such abnormality of mind (whether arising from a condition of arrested or retarded development of mind or any inherent causes or induced by disease or injury) as substantially impaired his or her mental responsibility for his or her acts and omissions in relation to the offence under section 5(1) or 7. [30/2012]
The determination of whether or not any person has substantively assisted the Central Narcotics Bureau in disrupting drug trafficking activities shall be at the sole discretion of the Public Prosecutor and no action or proceeding shall lie against the Public Prosecutor in relation to any such determination unless it is proved to the court that the determination was done in bad faith or with malice. [30/2012]
TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION
purpose of any medical examination or observation. [1/2019]
If, as a result of such medical examination or observation under subsection (1) or both the urine tests conducted under section 31(4)(b) or the hair test conducted under section 31A, it appears to the Director that it is necessary for any person examined or observed, or who supplied the urine specimen for the urine tests, or who supplied the hair specimens for the hair test — (a) to be subject to supervision, the Director may make a supervision order requiring that person to be subject to the supervision of an officer of the Bureau for a period not exceeding 5 years; or (b) to undergo treatment or rehabilitation or both at an approved institution, the Director may make an order in writing requiring that person to be admitted for that purpose to an approved institution. [1/2019] (2A) [Deleted by Act 1 of 2019]
Every person who is admitted to an approved institution under this section is to be detained in the institution for a period of 12 months unless he or she is discharged earlier by the Director or the Review Committee of the institution. [1/2019] (3A) Where a person who is admitted to an approved institution under this section is transferred from that approved institution to one or more other approved institutions or to one or more community rehabilitation centres, the combined period of his or her detention in all the approved institutions and community rehabilitation centres must not be less than 12 months unless he or she is discharged earlier by the Director or the Review Committee of the approved institution or community rehabilitation centre. [30/2012; 1/2019]
If the Review Committee of an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre is of the opinion that an inmate of that institution or centre whose period of detention therein is about to expire requires further treatment or rehabilitation or both, the Committee may, by order in writing, direct that the inmate be detained in the institution or centre for a further period or periods not exceeding 12 months at any one time. [30/2012; 1/2019] (4A) [Deleted by Act 1 of 2019]
No person in respect of whom an order has been made under subsection (2)(b) is to be detained in an approved institution or institutions or a community rehabilitation centre or centres for a period of more than 4 years after his or her admission to any approved institution pursuant to that order. [30/2012; 1/2019] 34A.—(1) If the Director, on or after 1 August 2019, makes a supervision order under section 34(2)(a) against a supervisee who is below 21 years of age, the Director may require the parent or guardian of the supervisee to attend any counselling session (whether or not together with the supervisee) at such place and time as the Director, or any person authorised by the Director, determines. [1/2019]
Any parent or guardian of a supervisee who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with the requirement under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000. [1/2019]
A court may, in lieu of imposing a fine, order a parent or guardian of a supervisee to attend any counselling session at such place and time as the Director, or any person authorised by the Director, determines. [1/2019]
[30/2012]
(a) approved institutions, except those designated under paragraph (b), is under the Commissioner of Prisons; and (b) such approved institutions as the Minister may designate, is under such person as the Minister may appoint. [1/2014]
The Commissioner of Prisons or the person appointed under subsection (1)(b) (as the case may be) may appoint a person to be the superintendent of an approved institution and such person is responsible for the supervision and administration of that approved institution. [1/2014]
Subject to such modifications as may be made by the Commissioner of Prisons, the standing orders issued under the Prisons Act 1933 apply to an approved institution under the charge of the Commissioner of Prisons as they apply to a prison. [1/2014]
The person appointed under subsection (1)(b) may in writing issue orders, to be called standing orders, for the approved institutions designated under his or her charge. [30/2012]
The Commissioner of Prisons may — (a) appoint a person to be the superintendent of a community rehabilitation centre; and (b) appoint a person to be the manager of a community rehabilitation centre. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
The superintendent of a community rehabilitation centre is responsible for assisting the Commissioner of Prisons with the charge and administration of the community rehabilitation centre. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
The manager of a community rehabilitation centre — (a) is responsible for the supervision and administration of the community rehabilitation centre; and (b) reports to the superintendent of the community rehabilitation centre. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
by this Act. [30/2012]
Every Review Committee consists of a Chairperson, who must be a person registered under the Medical Registration Act 1997, and such other members, being at least 3, as the Minister may determine.
The Chairperson and members of a Review Committee are appointed by the Minister for a term not exceeding 3 years, but may — (a) from time to time be re-appointed; (b) at any time be removed from office by the Minister; or (c) at any time resign from their office in writing addressed to the Minister.
At any meeting of the Review Committee, 3 members of the Committee constitute a quorum.
The Chairperson presides at every meeting of the Review Committee at which he or she is present and in his or her absence the members present must elect one of their number to preside at the meeting.
Every question before the Review Committee is to be determined by a majority of the votes of the members present and voting thereon, and in the event of an equality of votes the Chairperson or the member presiding at the meeting has a casting vote in addition to his or her original vote.
Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Review Committee may determine its own procedure.
Any order of the Review Committee may be signed by the Chairperson or a member of the Committee.
under review and must, as often as practicable, consider whether he or she should be discharged. [30/2012]
The Director or the Review Committee of an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre may at any time by order in writing — (a) discharge any inmate; or (b) transfer any inmate from one approved institution or community rehabilitation centre to another approved institution or community rehabilitation centre. [30/2012]
The superintendent of an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre may enter into an arrangement with the superintendent of another approved institution or community rehabilitation centre for the transfer of any inmate to that other institution or community rehabilitation centre and may, subject to any direction given by the Director or the Review Committee, carry out any transfer in accordance with that arrangement. [30/2012] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
On proof to his or her satisfaction that the presence at any place of an inmate is required in the interests of justice, or for the purpose of any inquiry, or in the public interest or in the interest of the inmate, the superintendent of an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre may order that the inmate be taken to that place. [30/2012] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (a) relate to any matter specified by the prison officer; and (b) are — (i) within the knowledge of that person; or (ii) in the custody or under the control of that person.
The purposes mentioned in subsection (1) are as follows: (a) in respect of an approved institution mentioned in section 36(1)(a) — to assist the Commissioner of Prisons, or the person appointed under section 36(2) to be the superintendent of the approved institution, to ascertain if there has been any contravention or failure to comply with any condition imposed on an inmate who is granted leave from that approved institution for the purpose of the inmate’s employment, treatment or rehabilitation outside that approved institution or to return to the inmate’s residence or other designated places; (b) in respect of a community rehabilitation centre — to assist the Commissioner of Prisons, or the person appointed under section 36A(2)(a) or (b) to be the superintendent or manager of the community rehabilitation centre, to ascertain if there has been any contravention or failure to comply with any condition imposed on an inmate who is granted leave from that community rehabilitation centre for the purpose of the inmate’s employment, treatment or rehabilitation outside that community rehabilitation centre or to return to the inmate’s residence or other designated places. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023]
The power to require a person to provide any document or information under subsection (1) includes the power — (a) to require that person to provide an explanation of the document or information; (b) if the document or information is not provided, to require that person to state, to the best of the knowledge and belief of that person, where it is; and (c) if the information is recorded otherwise than in legible form, to require the information to be authenticated and made available to the prison officer concerned in legible form.
The prison officer is entitled without payment to keep for the purposes in subsection (2) any document or information, or any copy or extract thereof, provided to him or her under that subsection.
A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to do anything required of the person by a notice under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,500.
To avoid doubt, for the purposes of subsection (5), it is a reasonable excuse for a person to refuse or fail to provide any information, produce any document or answer any question if doing so might tend to incriminate that person.
In this section, “document” means anything in which information of any description is recorded. [Act 6 of 2022 wef 02/09/2022]
(a) inquire into the complaint himself or herself; or (b) direct a police officer to make an inquiry for the purpose of ascertaining the truth or falsehood of the complaint and report to the Magistrate the result of the inquiry. [30/2012]
Every inquiry under subsection (1) is to be conducted in private, except that the procedure for conducting any inquiry is to be such as the Magistrate considers appropriate in the circumstances of the case.
A Magistrate or a police officer conducting any inquiry under subsection (1) has all the powers conferred on him or her by the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 in relation to the attendance and examination of witnesses, the taking of evidence and the production of documents.
If, after considering the result of any such inquiry, the Magistrate is satisfied that any person who is detained in an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre ought not to be so detained, the Magistrate may make an order for the discharge of that person from the approved institution or community rehabilitation centre and that person must be discharged accordingly. [30/2012]
Any order or decision of the Magistrate made under this section is final.
No evidence taken for the purpose of any such inquiry is admissible in any civil or criminal proceedings, except where the person who gave that evidence is charged with giving or fabricating false evidence.
[30/2012]
An inmate is deemed to be in legal custody — (a) while he or she is confined in, or is being taken to or from, an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre; (b) while he or she is for any other reason outside an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre and in the custody or under the control of an officer of the approved institution or community rehabilitation centre; or (c) while he or she is being taken to any place to which he or she is required or authorised under this Act to be taken, or is kept in custody pursuant to any such requirement or authorisation. [30/2012]
TAKING OF PHOTOGRAPHS, FINGER IMPRESSIONS, PARTICULARS AND BODY SAMPLES (a) for a person 16 years of age or older, the written consent of that person; (b) for a person 14 years of age or older but below 16 years of age, the written consent of both that person and of his or her parent or guardian; and (c) for a person below 14 years of age, the written consent of his or her parent or guardian, given to — (d) a police officer or an officer of the Bureau in charge of the case; or (e) a prison officer, after that officer has informed the person concerned, his or her parent or guardian or both (as the case may be) of the purpose for which a body sample is required from such person and the manner by which such body sample is to be taken from him or her; “authorised analyst” means a person appointed by the Commissioner of Police to be an analyst for the purposes of this Part; “body sample” means — (a) a sample of blood; (b) a sample of head hair, including the roots thereof; (c) a swab taken from a person’s mouth; or (d) such other sample as may be prescribed under subsection (2); “DNA” means deoxyribonucleic acid; “DNA information” means genetic information derived from the forensic DNA analysis of a body sample; “finger impression” includes thumb impression and palmar impression; [Deleted by Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] “invasive sample” means any body sample that is obtained by means of any invasive procedure, but does not include any sample described in subsection (3); [Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] “particulars”, in relation to a person, means any particulars, information or description of that person that may be relevant or useful in the identification of that person; “photograph”, in relation to a person, includes the photograph of any distinguishing feature or mark on the body of that person; “registered medical practitioner” has the meaning given by the Medical Registration Act 1997 and includes a dentist registered under the Dental Registration Act 1999.
Subject to subsection (3), the Minister may prescribe additional types of body samples that may be taken under section 40B.
The additional types of body samples that may be prescribed under subsection (2) must not include samples to be obtained from — (a) the genital or anal area of a person’s body; (b) a person’s body orifice other than the mouth; or (c) the breast of a woman. (a) take or cause to be taken photographs and finger impressions of such person; (b) make or cause to be made a record of the particulars of such person; (c) cause body samples of such person to be taken by a person authorised under section 40C(1); (d) send any photograph, finger impression, record of particulars or body sample so taken or made to the Commissioner of Police for identification and report.
The powers mentioned in subsection (1) may be exercised in respect of a person who on or after 1 March 2006 — (a) is subject to supervision pursuant to a supervision order made at any time (whether before, on or after that date) under section 34(2)(a); (b) is in an approved institution pursuant to an order made at any time (whether before, on or after that date) under section 34(2)(b); or (c) is subject to a supervision order made at any time (whether before, on or after that date) under any regulations providing for the supervision and aftercare of persons.
Every person mentioned in subsection (2) must — (a) submit to the taking of his or her photographs and finger impressions under subsection (1); (b) provide such particulars as may be required under subsection (1); and (c) subject to subsection (5), submit to the taking of his or her body samples by a person authorised under section 40C(1).
Where any person mentioned in subsection (2), without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with subsection (3) — (a) that person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one month or to both; and (b) any police officer, prison officer, officer of the Bureau or person authorised by the Commissioner of Police may use such force as is reasonably necessary to take or cause to be taken the photographs, finger impressions and body samples of that person.
No — (a) sample of blood; or (b) invasive sample prescribed under section 40A(2), is to be taken from any person unless the appropriate consent is given for the taking of the sample. [Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] 40C.—(1) For the purposes of section 40B(1)(c), a body sample may only be taken by — (a) a registered medical practitioner; (b) a police officer, a prison officer or an officer of the Bureau who has received training for the purpose; or (c) any other suitably qualified or trained person who is duly appointed in writing by the Commissioner of Police as an authorised person for the purpose.
Before taking any body sample, the person authorised under subsection (1) to take the sample must satisfy himself or herself that the taking of the sample does not endanger the person from whom the sample is to be taken.
The fact that a body sample has been taken must be recorded by the person who took the sample in such form or manner as may be required by the Commissioner of Police.
Every body sample taken must be sent to an authorised analyst for forensic DNA analysis. (a) a register (whether in a computerised form or otherwise) in which is stored all photographs, finger impressions and
(b) a DNA database (whether in a computerised form or otherwise) in which is stored all DNA information derived from a body sample taken from a person under section 40B.
Any information stored in the register and the DNA database under subsection (1) may be used for all or any of the following purposes: (a) for comparison with any other information or any other DNA information (as the case may be) obtained in the course of an investigation of an offence conducted by a police officer or an officer of the Bureau; (b) for comparison with information in the register of criminals or identification database maintained under section 4 or 29 of the Registration of Criminals Act 1949 or with DNA information in the DNA database maintained under section 31 of that Act, as the case may be; [Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] (c) for comparison with information or DNA information (as the case may be) in the register or DNA database, respectively, established under — (i) section 27C of the Criminal Law (Temporary Provisions) Act 1955; or (ii) section 26D of the Intoxicating Substances Act 1987; (d) for any proceedings for any offence; (e) for administering the register and DNA database for the purposes of this Act; (ea) for any investigation into a death conducted by a police officer, a Coroner or a forensic pathologist (including a post‑mortem examination) or any inquiry into any death held by a Coroner, under the Coroners Act 2010; [Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] (eb) for identifying a dead person or any part of a person; [Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] (ec) for identifying a person in order to provide police assistance to the person; [Act 26 of 2022 wef 12/06/2023] (f) for such other purposes as may be prescribed.
For the purposes of subsection (2)(d) — (a) any photograph, finger impression or particulars stored in the register under subsection (1)(a); (b) any DNA information stored in the DNA database under subsection (1)(b); and (c) any certificate or report purporting to have been compiled or made from information stored in the register or DNA database maintained under subsection (1), is, if produced from proper custody and authenticated by the signature of the Commissioner of Police or a police officer authorised by the Commissioner of Police, admissible in evidence in any proceedings without proof of signature and, until the contrary is proved, is proof of all matters contained therein.
A committee of inquiry must inquire into and report on the facts relating to any matter referred to it and, if directed by the Minister to do so, express its opinion on any question arising out of any such matter.
In this section and in sections 42, 49 and 51, “Minister” includes the person appointed by the Minister under subsection (1) to act on his or her behalf for the purposes of this section and sections 42, 49 and 51.
Where a committee of inquiry consists of more than one person, the Minister must appoint one of the members to be the chairperson.
Where a committee of inquiry consists of one member only, he or she is vested with the powers of a chairperson.
Every member of a committee of inquiry appointed under this section is deemed to be a public servant within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871.
(a) summon any person to give evidence on oath or on affirmation or to produce any document or material necessary for the purpose of the inquiry; and (b) visit any place in order to inquire into any matter which may arise in the course of the inquiry.
A person who is required by a committee of inquiry to produce any document or material for the purpose of the inquiry must not, without lawful excuse, fail to produce the document or material.
Any person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
$10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to both.
No person is allowed to attend the proceedings of a committee of inquiry, or address the committee of inquiry, except with the chairperson’s permission or if the Minister so directs.
The person notified under subsection (1) must be allowed to give evidence and examine any witness.
The evidence of each witness before a committee of inquiry must be read over to him or her and must be signed by him or her.
A record of the proceedings of a committee of inquiry must be signed by the chairperson and the members of the committee (if any) and forwarded to the Minister.
The record of proceedings of a committee of inquiry or any part thereof or any information relating thereto must be kept confidential and must not be released to any person, other than a member of the committee, without the Minister’s written permission.
not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
In the event of any dispute as to the amount of any damage so caused, the same is to be summarily ascertained and determined by a District Court or a Magistrate’s Court.
(a) any inmate of any approved institution escaping or attempting to escape; (b) any person who does any act or attempts to do any act to facilitate the escape of an inmate of any approved institution; or (c) any person engaged in any attempt to damage or force or break open — (i) the outside door or gate or enclosure wall of any approved institution or any other part of an approved institution; or (ii) any part of any vehicle in which an inmate is conveyed.
A prison officer may use any weapon against — (a) any inmate of any approved institution engaged in any combined outbreak; and (b) any person engaged in any attempt to damage or force or break open — (i) the outside door or gate or enclosure wall of any approved institution or any other part of an approved institution; or (ii) any part of any vehicle in which an inmate is conveyed, and may continue to use the weapon so long as the combined outbreak or attempt is actually being prosecuted.
Every prison officer may use weapons against an inmate of any approved institution using violence against any prison officer or other person, if the prison officer has reasonable ground to believe that the prison officer or other person is in danger of life or limb, or that other grievous hurt is likely to be caused to either of them.
A prison officer must not resort to the use of any weapon under subsection (1) unless the officer has reasonable ground to believe that he or she cannot otherwise prevent the escape of any inmate.
Before using any firearm against an inmate or other person referred to in subsection (1), the prison officer must give a warning to the inmate or that other person (as the case may be) that the officer is about to fire on him or her.
A prison officer must not, in the presence of his or her superior officer, use any firearm against an inmate or other person in the circumstances described in subsection (1) or (2) except under the orders of his or her superior officer.
The use of weapons under this section must be, as far as possible, to disable and not to kill.
Every police officer who is for the time being serving in the capacity of an escort, or of a guard in or around any approved institution, for the purpose of ensuring the safe custody of any inmate, is deemed to have all the powers and privileges granted to a prison officer under this section.
considers fit as escorts or guards to ensure the safe custody of the inmates who are under his or her custody. [1/2014]
An inmate who is delivered into the custody of an auxiliary police officer under this section is deemed to be in legal custody within the meaning of section 40.
Every auxiliary police officer who is employed as an escort or a guard under subsection (1) has, in the course of carrying out his or her duties as an escort or a guard, the same powers as a prison officer under section 56.
Every auxiliary police officer employed under subsection (1) is deemed to be a public servant within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871.
In this section, “auxiliary police officer” means a member of an auxiliary police force established under any other written law.
(a) providing for the issue of licences for the import, export, sale, manufacture, production or distribution of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) prescribing the form, duration and terms and conditions of any licence and the fees payable therefor, and providing for the cancellation and suspension thereof; (c) authorising the sale or possession or other dealing in controlled drugs or psychoactive substances and prescribing the circumstances and conditions under which the persons by whom controlled drugs or psychoactive substances may be sold, had in possession or otherwise dealt in; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (ca) authorising the possession of any drug paraphernalia (as defined in section 11B(5)) or paraphernalia (as defined in section 11N(7)) and prescribing the circumstances and conditions under which a person may possess it; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (cb) authorising the teaching, instructing or provision of information, of any activity mentioned in section 11D(1) or 11P(1) and prescribing the circumstances and conditions under which the teaching, instructing or provision of information may take place; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (cc) authorising the dissemination or publication of information on the carrying out of any activity mentioned in section 11D(1) or 11P(1) and prescribing the circumstances and conditions under which the information may be disseminated or published; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (d) requiring medical practitioners, dentists, pharmacists, veterinary surgeons and other persons who deal in controlled drugs or psychoactive substances as may be authorised by the regulations to keep records and make returns; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (e) requiring any medical practitioner who attends to a person whom the medical practitioner considers or has reasonable grounds to suspect is addicted to any controlled drug or psychoactive substance to furnish to the prescribed authority such particulars with respect to that person as may be prescribed; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (f) prohibiting any medical practitioner from administering, supplying and authorising the administration and supply to persons addicted to controlled drugs or psychoactive substances, and from prescribing for those persons, those drugs or psychoactive substances; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (g) as to the packaging and labelling of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (h) regulating the transport of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances and the methods to be used for destroying or otherwise disposing of those drugs or psychoactive substances when no longer required; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (i) requiring precautions to be taken for the safe custody of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (j) providing for the inspection of any precautions taken or records kept pursuant to any regulations made under this section; (k) providing for the treatment and rehabilitation of persons affected by the misuse of controlled drugs or psychoactive substances; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (l) prescribing the punishment by a fine not exceeding $10,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 4 years or both to be imposed on the conviction for a breach of the regulations; (m) providing for the management, maintenance and inspection of approved institutions or community rehabilitation centres; (n) prescribing the functions and procedure of Review Committees; (o) providing for the control, discipline (including the imposition of corporal punishment) and occupation of inmates and for the granting of leave to inmates for the purpose of their employment outside an approved institution or a community rehabilitation centre and to return to their residences or other designated places; (p) prescribing the appointment and duties of officers of approved institutions or community rehabilitation centres; (pa) providing for any matter in respect of a person who is committed under section 34(1), including the medical examination or observation of that person; (q) providing for the supervision and aftercare of persons referred to in section 34(2)(a), or who have undergone treatment and rehabilitation at approved or other institutions or who have been convicted of an offence under section 8(b), 11I(1)(b), 31(2) or (2A) or 31A(2) or (2A), or an offence involving the consumption of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance under section 26 or 34 of the Singapore Armed Forces Act 1972; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (qa) prescribing the circumstances under which the Director may extend the period for which a person is subject to supervision under this Act; (r) prescribing anything that may be prescribed; (s) prescribing the functions and procedure of advisory committees; (t) requiring the fingerprinting of inmates and the dissemination of this information to the police; (u) prescribing the type of offences in the regulations which may be arrestable offences for the purposes of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010; and [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] (v) generally for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act. [30/2012; 1/2019]
Regulations made by the Minister under this section may — (a) make different provisions in relation to different controlled drugs or psychoactive substances, different classes of persons or different cases or circumstances; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (b) make the opinion, consent or approval of any prescribed authority or authorised person material for the purposes of any provision; and (c) provide for the constitution and procedure of a tribunal to advise the Minister in any case of contravention of this Act or the regulations by any medical practitioner, dentist, pharmacist, veterinary surgeon or other authorised person. 58A. [Repealed by Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]
[Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] FIRST SCHEDULE Sections 2, 59 and Fourth Schedule CONTROLLED DRUGS PART 1 CLASS A DRUGS
Acetorphine
Acetylmethadol (also known as methadyl acetate)
Allylprodine
Alphacetylmethadol
Alphameprodine
Alphamethadol
Alphaprodine
[Deleted by S 194/2017]
Amphetamine
Anileridine
Benzethidine
Benzylmorphine (3-benzylmorphine)
1-Benzylpiperazine (also known as BZP)
Betacetylmethadol
Betameprodine
Betamethadol
Betaprodine
Bezitramide
1‑(4‑Bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)propan‑2‑amine (also known as 4‑Bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxy‑α‑methylphenethylamine, 4-Bromo-2,5- dimethoxyamphetamine, Brolamfetamine or DOB) and its bromo and dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2-(4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (also known as 4‑bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine or 2C-B) and its bromo and dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
[Deleted by S 200/2016] FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
Buprenorphine
Cannabinol
Cannabinol derivatives
Cannabis and cannabis resin
Cathinone
Clonitazene
Coca leaf
Cocaine
Codoxime
4-Cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenylbutane
4-Cyano-1-methyl-4-phenyl-piperidine
Desomorphine
Dextromoramide (34A) (2S)-2,6-Diamino-N-[(2S)-1-phenylpropan-2-yl]hexanamide (also known as Lisdexamphetamine or Lisdexamfetamine) and its stereoisomers
Diamorphine
Diampromide (36A) N,N-Diethyl-3-hydroxy-7-methyl-2-oxo-4,6,6a,7,8,9- hexahydroindolo-[4,3-fg]quinoline-9-carboxamide (also known as 2‑Oxo-3-hydroxy-LSD) and its acyclic secondary and tertiary amide structural isomers
Diethylthiambutene
[Deleted by S 200/2016]
Difenoxin
Dihydroetorphine
Dihydromorphine
Dimenoxadole
Dimepheptanol
1-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 2,5-Dimethoxy-4,α-dimethylphenethylamine, 2-Amino-1-(2,5- FIRST SCHEDULE — continued dimethoxy-4-methyl)phenylpropane or DOM) and its methyl and dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2,5-Dimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine (also known as 2,5‑Dimethoxyamphetamine or DMA) and its dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
N,α-Dimethyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine (also known as 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine or MDMA) and its acyloxy or sulphonyl derivatives at the nitrogen atom, and the following example of such a derivative: (a) tert-Butyl N-[1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)propan-2-yl]-N- methylcarbamate (also known as N-tert-Butoxycarbonyl- MDMA or t-Boc-MDMA)
3-(1,2-Dimethylhepty1)-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9- trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran (also known as DMHP)
Dimethylthiambutene
[Deleted by S 200/2016]
Dioxaphetyl butyrate
Diphenoxylate
Dipipanone
Drotebanol
Ecgonine, and any derivative of ecgonine which is convertible to ecgonine or to cocaine
4-Ethyl-2,5-dimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine (also known as DOET)
N-Ethyl-α-methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine (also known as MDEA)
Ethylmethylthiambutene
Eticyclidine
Etonitazene
Etorphine
Etoxeridine
[Deleted by S 200/2016]
Furethidine FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
Gamma hydroxybutyric acid
Hydrocodone
Hydromorphinol
Hydromorphone
1-Hydroxy-3-pentyl-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6-H- dibenzo[b,d]pyran
Hydroxypethidine
Isomethadone
Ketamine and its acyloxy or sulphonyl derivatives at the nitrogen atom, and the following example of such a derivative: (a) tert-Butyl N-methyl-N-((2-chlorophenyl)-1-oxocyclohexan-2- yl)carbamate (also known as N-tert-Butoxycarbonyl-ketamine or t-Boc-ketamine)
Ketobemidone
Levomethorphan
Levomoramide
Levophenacylmorphan
Levorphanol
Lysergamide
Lysergide and other compounds structurally derived from lysergamide by substitution of any of the hydrogen atoms, and the following examples of such a compound: (a) 1-Acetyl-N,N-diethyllysergamide (also known as N‑acetyl‑LSD or ALD-52) (b) 6-Allyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (also known as N‑allyl‑nor-LSD or AL-LAD) (c) 6-Ethyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (also known as ETH‑LAD) (d) 6-Propyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (also known as PRO‑LAD) (e) Lysergic acid 2,4-dimethylazetidide (also known as LSZ) (f) 1-Propionyl-N,N-diethyllysergamide (also known as 1‑Propionyl‑LSD or 1P-LSD) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (g) 1-Butanoyl-N,N-diethyllysergamide (also known as 1‑Butanoyl‑LSD or 1B-LSD) (h) 1-Cyclopropionyl-N,N-diethyllysergamide (also known as 1‑Cyclopropionyl-LSD or 1cP‑LSD)
Mescaline
Metazocine
Methadone
[Deleted by S 284/2021]
Methamphetamine (also known as Methylamphetamine) and its acyloxy or sulphonyl derivatives at the nitrogen atom, and the following examples of such a derivative: (a) tert-Butyl N-methyl-N-(1-phenylpropan-2-yl)carbamate (also known as N-tert-Butoxycarbonyl-methamphetamine or t‑Boc‑methamphetamine) (b) N,4-Dimethyl-N-(3-phenyl-propan-2-yl)benzenesulfonamide (also known as N-Tosyl-methamphetamine)
[Deleted by S 200/2016]
3-Methoxy-α-methyl-4,5-(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine (also known as 5-methoxy-MDA or MMDA)
p-Methoxy-α-methylphenethylamine (also known as 4‑methoxyamphetamine or para-methoxyamphetamine) and its methoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
N-Methyl-α-ethyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine (also known as MBDB)
N-[α-Methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy)phenethyl]hydroxylamine (also known as N-Hydroxy MDA)
α-Methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine (also known as Tenamfetamine or MDA)
2-Methyl-3-morpholino-1,1-diphenylpropanecarboxylic acid
1-Methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid
4-Methylaminorex
Methyldesorphine
Methyldihydromorphine (6-Methyldihydromorphine) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
4-Methylthioamphetamine
[Deleted by S 233/2018]
Metopon
Monoacetylmorphine
Morpheridine
Morphine
Morphine methobromide, morphine N-oxide and other pentavalent nitrogen morphine derivatives
Myrophine
Nicomorphine (3,6-dinicotinoyl-morphine)
Noracymethadol
Norbuprenorphine
Norketamine and its dehydro derivatives
Norlevorphanol
Normethadone
Normorphine
Norpipanone
Opium
Oxycodone
Oxymorphone
Parahexyl (3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl- 6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran)
Pethidine
Phenadoxone
Phenampromide
Phenazocine
Phenomorphan
Phenoperidine (120A) 4-Phenyl-N-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl acetate (also known as 1‑Phenethyl-4-phenyl-4-piperidinol acetate or PEPAP) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
4-Phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid ethyl ester
Piminodine
Piritramide
Poppy-straw and concentrate of poppy-straw
Proheptazine
Properidine (1-Methyl-4-phenyl-piperidine-4-carboxylic acid isopropyl ester)
[Deleted by S 200/2016]
Psilocybine
Racemethorphan
Racemoramide
Racemorphan
[Deleted by S 233/2018]
Rolicyclidine (133A) Tapentadol
Tenocyclidine (134A) 6,7,8,14-Tetradehydro-4,5-α-epoxy-6-methoxy-17-methylmorphinan- 3-ol (also known as 3-O-demethylthebaine or Oripavine)
Thebacon
Thebaine
Tilidine
1-(3-Trifluoromethylphenyl)piperazine (also known as TFMPP)
Trimeperidine
[Deleted by S 284/2021]
FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
Acetylfentanyl (also known as desmethyl fentanyl) (1AA) Acryloylfentanyl (also known as Acrylfentanyl) (1A) Alfentanil
Alpha-methyl fentanyl
Alpha-methyl fentanyl acetanilide
Alpha-methylthiofentanyl
Benzyl fentanyl
Beta-hydroxy fentanyl
Beta-hydroxy-3-methyl fentanyl (7A) Butyryl fentanyl (also known as butyrfentanyl)
Carfentanil (8AAA) Crotonylfentanyl (8AA) Cyclopropylfentanyl (8AB) 4-Fluorobutyrfentanyl (also known as para-Fluoro-butyrfentanyl or p‑Fluoro-butyrfentanyl) (8AC) 2-Fluorofentanyl (also known as ortho-Fluorofentanyl) (8AD) 3-Fluorofentanyl (also known as meta-Fluorofentanyl) (8AE) 4-Fluorofentanyl (also known as para-Fluorofentanyl) (8A) 4-Fluoroisobutyrfentanyl (also known as 4-FIBF or pFIBF) (8B) Furanyl fentanyl
Lofentanil (9A) Methoxyacetylfentanyl FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (9B) 4-Methoxybutyrfentanyl (also known as para-Methoxy-butyrfentanyl or p-Methoxy-butyrylfentanyl)
3-Methyl fentanyl (10A) 3-Methylthiofentanyl (10B) Ocfentanil
[Deleted by S 354/2019] (11A) Remifentanil
Sufentanil (12AA) Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl (also known as THF-F) (12A) Thiafentanil
Thiofentanyl
Valerylfentanyl
3-[(4-Methylnaphthalen-1-yl)methyl]-1-pentyl-1H-indole (also known as JWH-184)
3-(Naphthalen-1-ylmethyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole (also known as JWH‑175)
above compounds or derivatives, for example: FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
[5-(2-Chlorophenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as JWH-369)
[5-(2-Fluorophenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as JWH-307)
[5-(3-Fluorophenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as JWH-368)
(1-Hexyl-5-phenyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-147)
(1-Hexyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-031)
[5-(2-Methylphenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as JWH-370)
Naphthalen-1-yl[5-(naphthalen-1-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl] methanone (also known as JWH-309)
Naphthalen-1-yl(1-pentyl-5-phenyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-145)
Naphthalen-1-yl(1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-030)
E-1-[1-(1-Naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane (also known as JWH-176)
the cyclohexyl ring to any extent, including any salt or stereoisomeric form of the FIRST SCHEDULE — continued above compounds or derivatives, and any preparation or product containing the above compounds or derivatives, for example:
2-[5-Hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl]-5-(2-methyloctan-2- yl)phenol (also known as CP55,940)
2-(3-Hydroxycyclohexyl)-5-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol (also known as CP47,497)
(a) substitution in the phenyl ring to any extent with alkyl, alkoxy, alkylenedioxy, haloalkyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the phenyl ring by one or more other univalent substituents; (b) substitution at the 3-position with an alkyl substituent; (c) substitution at the nitrogen atom with alkyl, cycloalkyl or dialkyl, benzyl or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure, [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] including any salt or stereoisomeric form of the above compounds, and any preparation or product containing the above compounds, for example:
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(benzylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-benzylcathinone or BMDP) (1AAA) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(cyclohexylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-cyclohexylcathinone or 3,4- methylenedioxy-α-cyclohexylaminopropiophenone or N- cyclohexylmethylone or Cyputylone) [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (1AA) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)-1-butanone (also known as Dibutylone or bk-DMBDB) (1A) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)-1-propanone (also known as bk-MDDMA) (1BA) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)pentan-1-one (also known as N,N-dimethylpentylone, dipentylone or bk-DMBDP) [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (1B) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-1-butanone (also known as Eutylone) (1C) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)pentan-1-one (also known as 1-(2H-1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)pentan-1-one) or N‑Ethylpentylone or N-Ethylnorpentylone or Ephylone)
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one (also known as ethylone or 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone or bk-MDEA or MDEC)
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (also known as butylone)
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (also known as pentylone)
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as methylone or 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone)
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)butan-1-one (also known as MDPBP) (6A) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one (also known as 3,4-Methylenedioxy-α-pyrrolidinohexanophenone or 3,4-MDPHP) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as 3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone or MDPV)
1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)propan-1-one (also known as MDPPP) (8A) 2-(Benzylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)propan-1-one (also known as Benzedrone) (8AAA) 1-(4-Bromophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Bromoethcathinone or 4-BEC) (8AA) 1-(4-Bromophenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Bromomethcathinone or Brephedrone or 4-BMC) (8AAA A) 2- (Butylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one (also known as N-Butylhexedrone or α-Butylaminohexanophenone) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (8AAB) 1-(4-Chlorophenyl)-2-(dimethylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Chloro-N,N-dimethylcathinone) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (8AB) 1-(4-Chlorophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Chloroethcathinone or 4-CEC) (8AC) 1-(3-Chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 3- chloromethcathinone or 3‑CMC) [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024] (8B) 1-(4-Chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Chloromethcathinone or Clephedrone or 4-CMC) (8C) 2-(Diethylamino)-1-phenyl-1-propanone (also known as amfepramone or diethylpropion or diethylcathinone)
2-(Dimethylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one (also known as metamfepramone or dimethylcathinone)
1-(3,4-Dimethylphenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 3,4-Dimethylmethcathinone or 3,4-DMMC) (10A) 2-(Ethylamino)-1-(4-ethylphenyl)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Ethylethcathinone) (10B) 2-(Ethylamino)-1-(4-fluorophenyl)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Fluoroethcathinone or 4-FEC) (10C) 2-(Ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)pentan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methyl-α-ethylaminopentiophenone or 4-MEAPP)
2-(Ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methylethcathinone or 4-MEC) 2-(Ethylamino)-1-phenylbutan-1-one N‑ethylbuphedrone) (also known as (12A) 2-(Ethylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one N‑Ethylhexedrone or Ethyl-hexedrone) (also known as 2-(Ethylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (also known as α‑Ethylaminopentiophenone or N-Ethylpentedrone)
2-(Ethylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one (also known as ethcathinone) (14A) 1-(4-Ethylphenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Ethylmethcathinone or 4-EMC) (14B) 1-(4-Fluoro-3-methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan‑1‑one (also known as 4‑Fluoro‑3‑methyl‑α‑pyrrolidinopentiophenone or 4‑Fluoro‑3‑methyl‑α‑PVP)
1-(4-Fluorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Fluoromethcathinone or Flephedrone or 4-FMC) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (15AA) 1-(4-Fluorophenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one (also known as 4‑Fluoro-PHP) (15A) 1-(4-Fluorophenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as 4‑Fluoro-α-PVP)
1-(4-Methoxyphenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methoxymethcathinone or Methedrone or bk-PMMA or PMMC)
1-(4-Methoxyphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)propan-1-one (also known as MOPPP) (17AA) 4-Methyl-1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as α- PiHP or α-pyrrolidinoisohexanophenone) [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (17A) 2-(Methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)butan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methylbuphedrone or 4-Me-MABP)
2-(Methylamino)-1-phenylbutan-1-one (also known as buphedrone)
2-(Methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (also known as pentedrone or α-Methylaminovalerophenone)
2-(Methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one (also known as methcathinone) (20A) 1-(3-Methylphenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 3- methylmethcathinone, metaphedrone or 3-MMC) [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
1-(4-Methylphenyl)-2-(methylamino)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methylmethcathinone or Mephedrone or 4-MMC)
1-(4-Methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)butan-1-one (also known as MPBP) (22A) 1-(4-Methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methyl-α-pyrrolidinohexanophenone or MPHP)
1-(4-Methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as pyrovalerone) (23A) 1-(4-Methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)propan-1-one (also known as 4‑Methyl-α-pyrrolidinopropiophenone or 4-MePPP)
1-Phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)butan-1-one (also known as α-PBP) (24A) 1-Phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one (also known as Alpha‑Pyrrolidinohexiophenone or Alpha-PHP or α-PHP)
1-Phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as α-PVP) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
1-Phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)propan-1-one (also known as α-PPP)
(a) substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkoxy, haloalkyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system by one or more other univalent substituents; (b) substitution at the 3-position with an alkyl substituent; or (c) substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, cycloalkyl or dialkyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure, [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] including any salt or stereoisomeric form of the above compounds, and any preparation or product containing the above compounds, for example:
1-(Naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as naphyrone or naphthylpyrovalerone)
2-(Pyrrolidin-1-yl)-1-(thiophen-2-yl)pentan-1-one (also known as α‑Pyrrolidinopentiothiophenone or α-PVT)
2-Amino-1-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethan-1-one (also known as bk-2C-B) and its bromo and dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring (1AA) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as ADB-INACA or ADMB-INACA) and its N‑(1‑amino‑1‑oxohexan‑2‑yl) isomers [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024] (1A) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-5-bromo-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as ADB-5-Bromo-INACA) and its N-(1- amino-1-oxohexan-2-yl) isomers and their respective bromo positional isomers in the 6-membered ring of the indazole structure [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
4-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran (also known as 4-APB)
5-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran (also known as 5-APB) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
6-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran (also known as 6-APB or BenzoFury)
7-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran (also known as 7-APB)
4-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (also known as 4-APDB)
5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (also known as 5-APDB)
6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (also known as 6-APDB)
7-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (also known as 7-APDB)
1-(1-Benzofuran-5-yl)-N-ethylpropan-2-amine (also known as 5‑EAPB) and its 4-yl, 6-yl and 7-yl isomers
1-Benzyl-4-methylpiperazine (also known as Methylbenzylpiperazine or MBZP)
2-Bis(4-fluorophenyl)methylsulfinyl-N-methylacetamide (also known as N-Methyl-4,4-difluoromodafinil or modafiendz) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl rings
2-(4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (also known as 25B-NBOMe) and its bromo, dimethoxy and methoxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
2-N-[2-(4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenylethyl)aminomethyl]phenol (also known as 25B-NBOH) and its bromo, dimethoxy and hydroxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
4-Bromo-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]‑benzamide (also known as Bromadoline or U‑47931E) and its bromo positional isomers in the phenyl ring and diamino positional isomers in the cyclohexyl ring
4-Bromo-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl-benzamide (also known as N‑Methyl U‑47931E or N‑Methyl Bromadoline) and its bromo positional isomers in the phenyl ring and diamino positional isomers in the cyclohexyl ring (16A) 1-(1-(1-(4-Bromophenyl)ethyl)-piperidin-4-yl)-1,3-dihydro-2H- benzimidazol-2-one (also known as Brorphine) and its bromo positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024] (16B) 2-(2-(4-Butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzo[d]imidazol-1-yl)-N,N- diethylethan-1-amine (also known as butonitazene or butoxynitazene) and its diethylamino and butoxy structural isomers and their respective FIRST SCHEDULE — continued butoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring and nitro positional isomers in the 6-membered ring of the benzimidazole structure [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
17-Carboxy-16,17-dihydromitragynine
16-Carboxymitragynine
1-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 4‑Chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine, 4‑Chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine, DOC, 3C‑C, 4‑Cl‑2,5‑DMA or 4‑Chloro-2,5-DMA) and its chloro and dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine also known as 2C‑C) and its chloro and dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (also known as 25C-NBOMe) and its chloro, dimethoxy and methoxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
2-N-[2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenylethyl)aminomethyl]phenol (also known as 25C-NBOH) and its chloro, dimethoxy and hydroxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings (22A) 5-(Cyclobutylmethyl)-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1- one (also known as Cumyl-CB-MeGACLONE, Cumyl- CBMGACLONE, cumyl-cyclobutylmethyl-gammacarbolinone or SGT-273) and its phenylpropyl isomers [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
1-Cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine (also known as MT-45) (23A) 2-(1-(Cyclohexylmethyl)-2-oxo-1,2-dihydro-3H-indol-3-ylidene) benzohydrazide (also known as N’-(1-(Cyclohexylmethyl)-2- oxoindolin-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide or BZO-CHMOXIZID) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (23AA) N-Cyclohexyl-2-(1-(4-hydroxypentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)acetamide and its hydroxy positional isomers in the pentyl group [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (23AB) N-Cyclohexyl-2-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)acetamide (also known as CH-PIATA) [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
17-O-Desmethyl-16,17-dihydromitragynine
9-O-Desmethylmitragynine FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
3,4-Dibromo-N-methyl-N-(1-methyl-1-azaspiro[4.5]decan-6-yl) benzamide (also known as U‑77891) and its dibromo positional isomers in the phenyl ring and their respective azaspiro[4.5]decanyl isomers
3,4-Dichloromethylphenidate and its dichloro positional isomers in the phenyl ring (also known as 3,4-DCMP)
3,4-Dichloro-N-{[1-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]methyl}benzamide (also known as AH-7921) and its dichloro positional isomers in the phenyl ring
3,4-Dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide (also known as U-47700) and its dichloro positional isomers in the phenyl ring and diamino positional isomers in the cyclohexyl ring
N,N-Diethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzo[d] imidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (also known as Isotonitazene) and its diethylamino structural isomers and their respective isopropoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring and nitro positional isomers in the 6‑membered ring of the benzimidazole structure (30A) N,N-Diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzo[d]imidazol- 1-yl)ethan-1-amine (also known as Metonitazene) and its diethylamino structural isomers and their respective methoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring and nitro positional isomers in the 6-membered ring of the benzimidazole structure [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (30B) N,N-Diethyl-2-(2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzo[d]imidazol- 1-yl)ethan-1-amine (also known as protonitazene or propoxynitazene) and its diethylamino structural isomers and their respective propoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring and nitro positional isomers in the 6-membered ring of the benzimidazole structure [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
2,3-Dihydro-1H-inden-2-amine (also known as 2-Aminoindane)
6,7-Dihydro-5H-indeno[5,6-d][1,3]dioxol-6-amine (also known as 5,6-(methylenedioxy)-2-aminoindane or MDAI)
2,3-Dihydro-5-iodo-1H-inden-2-amine (also known as 5‑Iodo‑2‑aminoindane or 5-IAI)
[2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(morpholin-4-ylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]- 1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
{4-[2,6-Dimethoxy-4-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenyl]-6,6-dimethyl- bicyclo[3.1.1]hept-2-en-2-yl}methanol FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (also known as 25H-NBOMe) and its dimethoxy and methoxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (also known as 2C-H) and its dimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2-N-[2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenylethyl)aminomethyl]phenol (also known as 25H-NBOH) and its dimethoxy and hydroxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
6,6-Dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,8,9,10,10a-hexahydro-6H- benzo[c]chromen-1,9-diol
N,N-Dimethyl-1-phenylpropan-2-amine (also known as N, N‑dimethylamphetamine)
Diphenyl(pyrrolidin-2-yl)methanol (also known as diphenylprolinol)
1-(1,2-Diphenylethyl)piperidine (also known as Diphenidine)
2-Diphenylmethylpiperidine (also known as desoxypipradrol) (43AA) 2-(2-(4-Ethoxybenzyl)-1H-benzo[d]imidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan- 1-amine (also known as etodesnitazene, etazene, etazen, etazone or desnitroetonitazene) and its diethylamino structural isomers and their respective ethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (43AB) 2-(4-Ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-pyrrolidin-1-ylethyl)-1H- benzimidazole (also known as etonitazepyne or N-pyrrolidino etonitazene) and its ethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring and their respective nitro positional isomers in the 6-membered ring of the benzimidazole structure [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (43A) N-Ethyl-1-(3-fluorophenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 3- Fluoroethamphetamine, 3-Fluoroethylamphetamine or 3-FEA) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (43B) N-Ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)-cyclohexanamine (also known as 3- Methoxyeticyclidine or 3‑Methoxy‑PCE or 3-MeO-PCE) and its methoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024] (43C) 2-(Ethylamino)-2-(2-fluorophenyl)-cyclohexanone (also known as 2- fluorodeschloro-N-ethyl-ketamine, 2‑FDCNEK, 2-fluoro-2-oxo PCE FIRST SCHEDULE — continued or 2‑fluoro NENDCK) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
2-(Ethylamino)-2-phenyl-cyclohexan-1-one (also known as Deschloro‑N-ethyl-ketamine)
Ethylphenidate (45A) 2-(2-(1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-(6-hydroxyindol)-3-yl)acetamido)-3,3- dimethylbutanamide and its N-(1-amino-1-oxohexan-2-yl) isomers and their respective fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring and hydroxy positional isomers in the 6-membered ring of the indole structure [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (45B) 2-(2-(1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)acetamido)-3,3- dimethylbutanamide (also known as ADB-FUBIATA or FUB- ACADB or AD-18) and its N-(1-amino-1-oxohexan-2-yl) isomers and their respective fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
2-Fluorodeschloroketamine (also known as 2-Fluoroketamine or 2‑FDCK) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring
4-Fluoromethylphenidate and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring (47A) 2-(1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-2-oxo-1,2-dihydro-3H-indol-3-ylidene) benzohydrazide (also known as N’-(1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-2-oxoindolin- 3-ylidene)benzohydrazide or 5-Fluoro-BZO-POXIZID or 5F-BZO- POXIZID or MDA-19 5-fluoropentyl analogue or 5F-MDA-19) and its fluoro positional isomers in the pentyl group [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
5-(5-Fluoropentyl)-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one (also known as 2-Cumyl-5-(5-fluoropentyl)-gamma-carbolin-1-one or 5-Fluoro-cumyl-PEGACLONE) and its phenylpropyl isomers and their respective fluoro positional isomers in the pentyl group
2-(3-Fluorophenyl)-3-methylmorpholine (also known as 3‑Fluorophenmetrazine or 3F‑phenmetrazine) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring
1-(4-Fluorophenyl)piperazine (also known as 4‑Fluorophenylpiperazine or 4-FPP) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
1-(4-Fluorophenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 4‑Fluoroamphetamine or 4-FA) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring (51A) 2-(1-Hexyl-2-oxo-1,2-dihydro-3H-indol-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide (also known as N’-(1-Hexyl-2-oxoindolin-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide or BZO-HEXOXIZID or MDA-19) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (51B) N’-(1-Hexyl-2-oxoindolin-3-ylidene)-4-hydroxybenzohydrazide and its hydroxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
1-Hydroxy-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6,6a,7,8,10,10a- hexahydro-9H-benzo[c]chromen-9-one
[9-Hydroxy-6-methyl-3-(5-phenylpentan-2-yl)oxy- 5,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl]acetate
3-Hydroxy-2-[3-methyl-6-(2-propenyl)-cyclohex-2-en-1-yl]-5- pentyl-1,4-benzoquinone (54AA) N’-(1-(4-Hydroxycyclohexylmethyl)-2-oxoindolin-3-ylidene) benzohydrazide and its hydroxy positional isomers in the cyclohexyl group [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (54A) 2-(1-(5-Hydroxyhexyl)-2-oxo-1,2-dihydro-3H-indol-3-ylidene) benzohydrazide (also known as N’-(1-(5-Hydroxyhexyl)-2- oxoindolin-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide) and its hydroxy positional isomers in the hexyl group [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)- 6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydro-6H-benzo[c]chromen-1-ol (for example HU‑210, HU-211)
7-Hydroxymitragynine (56A) 2-(1-(5-Hydroxypentyl)-2-oxo-1,2-dihydro-3H-indol-3-ylidene) benzohydrazide (also known as N’-(1-(5-Hydroxypentyl)-2- oxoindolin-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide) and its hydroxy positional isomers in the pentyl group [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
5-(5-Hydroxypentyl)-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1- one and its phenylpropyl isomers and their respective hydroxy positional isomers in the pentyl group FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (57A) 2-(1H-Indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoic acid and its hexanoic acid isomers [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
1-(1H-Indol-5-yl)propan-2-amine (also known as 5-IT) and its 4-yl, 6‑yl and 7-yl isomers
2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (also known as 25I-NBOMe) and its dimethoxy, iodo and methoxy positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (also known as 2C-I) and its dimethoxy and iodo positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2-N-[2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenylethyl)aminomethyl]phenol (also known as 25I-NBOH) and its dimethoxy, hydroxy and iodo positional isomers in the respective phenyl rings
3-Methoxy-2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)propan-1-one (also known as Mexedrone) and its methyl positional isomers in the phenyl ring
N-[1-(3-Methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine (also known as 3‑Methoxyphencyclidine or 3-Methoxy-PCP or 3-MeO-PCP) and its methoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
2-(3-Methoxyphenyl)-2-(N-ethylamino)cyclohexanone (also known as methoxetamine)
1-[1-(2-Methoxyphenyl)-2-phenylethyl]piperidine (also known as 2‑MeO‑Diphenidine or 2‑MXP or methoxphenidine) and its methoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
N-Methyl-5-(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran (also known as 5‑MAPB) and its 4‑yl, 6‑yl and 7‑yl isomers
N-Methyl-1-(4-fluorophenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 4‑Fluoromethamphetamine or 4-FMA) and its fluoro positional isomers in the phenyl ring
N-Methyl-1-(4-methoxyphenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 4‑Methoxymethamphetamine or para-Methoxymethamphetamine or PMMA) and its methoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring
4-Methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1,3-oxazol-2-amine (also known as 4,4’-Dimethylaminorex, 4,4’‑DMAR or para‑methyl‑4‑methylaminorex) and its methyl positional isomers in the phenyl ring FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
N-Methyl-1-(4-methylphenyl)propan-2-amine (also known as 4‑Methylmethamphetamine or 4-MMA) and its methyl positional isomers in the phenyl ring (70A) 1-(2-Methyl-4-(3-phenyl-prop-2-en-1-yl)-piperazin-1-yl)-1-butanone (also known as 2-methyl-AP-237 or 2-methyl buccinazine) and its methyl positional isomers in the piperazinyl ring [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023]
(N-Methyl-4-phenylpiperidin-4-yl)propanoate (also known as 1‑Methyl-4-phenyl-4-piperidinol propionate, desmethylprodine or MPPP)
N-Methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine (also known as methiopropamine) and its thiophen-3-yl isomer
1-(4-Methylbenzo-1,3-dioxol-6-yl)propan-2-amine (also known as 5‑methyl-MDA or 5-methyl-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine)
Mitragynine
Naphthalen-1-yl(4-pentyloxynaphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as CB-13) (75A) 2-(1-Pentyl-2-oxo-1,2-dihydro-3H-indol-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide (also known as N’-(1-Pentyl-2-oxoindolin-3-ylidene)benzohydrazide or BZO-POXIZID or MDA-19 pentyl analogue or 5C-MDA-19) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
2-Phenyl-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (also known as Deschloroketamine) (76A) 1-Phenyl-2-phenyl-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)ethanone (also known as α- Pyrrolidino-2-phenylacetophenone or α-D2PV) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
2-(2-Phenylpropan-2-yl)-5-pentyl-pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one (also known as 2-Cumyl-5-pentylgamma-carbolin-1-one or cumyl‑PEGACLONE or SGT-151) and its phenylpropyl isomers
5-[(2-Phenylpropan-2-yl)-pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one-yl]pentanoic acid and its phenylpropyl isomers
Salvinorin A
2,4,5-Trimethoxy-α-methylphenethylamine (also known as 2,4,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine or TMA‑2) and its trimethoxy positional isomers in the phenyl ring FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
(a) substitution at the nitrogen atom of the side chain to any extent with alkyl or alkenyl substituents, or by inclusion of only the nitrogen atom of the side chain in a cyclic structure; (b) substitution at the carbon atom adjacent to the nitrogen atom of the side chain with alkyl or alkenyl substituents; (c) substitution in the 6-membered ring to any extent with alkyl, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxy, thioalkyl, alkylenedioxy, halide or acetoxy substituents; (d) substitution at the 2-position of the tryptamine ring system with an alkyl substituent, including any ether, salt or stereoisomeric form of any such compound, any preparation or product containing any such compound, and the following examples of such a compound:
4-Acetoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (also known as 4‑Acetoxy‑DiPT or 4-AcO-DiPT)
4-Acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (also known as 4-Acetoxy-DMT or 4-AcO-DMT)
5-Benzyloxytryptamine
5-Bromo-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (also known as 5-Bromo-DMT)
5-Bromotryptamine
5-Chloro-α-methyltryptamine (also known as 5-Chloro-AMT)
5-Chlorotryptamine
N,N-Diallyltryptamine
N,N-Diethyltryptamine
N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine (10A) 5,6-Dimethoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (also known as 5,6- Dimethoxy-DiPT or 5,6-MeO-DiPT) [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
N,N-Dimethyltryptamine
N,N-Dipropyltryptamine
Etryptamine FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
5-Fluoro-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (also known as 5-Fluoro-DMT)
5-Fluoro-α-methyltryptamine (also known as 5-Fluoro-AMT)
5-Fluorotryptamine
4-Hydroxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (also known as 4-Hydroxy-DET or 4-HO-DET)
4-Hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (also known as 4‑Hydroxy‑DiPT or 4-HO-DiPT)
4-Hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (also known as Psilocin)
4-Hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (also known as 4‑Hydroxy‑MET or 4-HO-MET)
4-Hydroxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (also known as 4‑Hydroxy-MiPT or 4-HO-MiPT)
4-Hydroxy-α-methyltryptamine (also known as 4-Hydroxy-AMT or 4‑HO-AMT)
5-Hydroxy-N-methyltryptamine (also known as 5-Hydroxy-NMT or 5‑HO-NMT)
5-Hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (also known as Bufotenine)
5-Methoxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-DALT or 5-MeO-DALT)
5-Methoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-DET or 5-MeO-DET)
5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (also known as 5‑Methoxy‑DiPT or 5-MeO-DiPT)
5-Methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-DMT or 5-MeO-DMT)
5-Methoxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-DPT or 5-MeO-DPT)
5-Methoxy-N-ethyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (also known as 5- Methoxy-EiPT or 5-MeO-EiPT)
5-Methoxy-N-ethyl-N-propyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy- EPT or 5-MeO-EPT)
5-Methoxy-α-ethyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-AET or 5‑MeO-AET) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
5-Methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (also known as 5‑Methoxy-MiPT or 5-MeO-MiPT)
5-Methoxy-α-methyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-AMT or 5‑MeO-AMT)
5-Methoxy-N-methyltryptamine (also known as 5-Methoxy-NMT or 5‑MeO-NMT)
4-Methyl-α-ethyltryptamine (also known as 4-Methyl-AET)
5-Methyltryptamine
α-Methyltryptamine
N-Methyltryptamine
(a) at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with a type A substituent; and (b) at the hydrogen atom of the carboxaldehyde with a type B substituent, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways: (c) substitution of the indole ring with a nitrogen heterocyclic analog; (d) substitution to the indole ring or its nitrogen heterocyclic analog to any extent; (e) substitution to the type B substituent to any extent, including any salt or stereoisomeric form of the compound or derivative of the compound, any preparation or product containing the compound or derivative of the compound, and the following examples of such a compound or derivative:
[1-(5-Bromopent-1-yl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalene-1-yl) methanone (also known as 5-Bromo-THJ-018)
[1-(5-Bromopent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (also known as 5-Bromo-UR-144)
[1-(5-Chloropent-1-yl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as 5-Chloro-THJ-018)
[1-(5-Chloropent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (also known as 5-Chloro-UR-144)
[1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl) methanone (also known as FUB-144 or FUB‑UR-144) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
[1-(5-Fluoropent-1-yl)-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as FUBIMINA)
[1-(5-Fluoropent-1-yl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as THJ-2201)
[1-(5-Fluoropent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (also known as XLR-11 or 5‑Fluoro-UR-144)
[1-(5-Hydroxypent-1-yl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone
[1-(5-Hydroxypent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3- tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
[1-(5-Iodopent-1-yl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as 5-Iodo-THJ-018)
Naphthalen-1-yl[1-(pent-1-yl)-1H-indazol-3-yl]methanone (also known as THJ-018)
5-[3-(1-Naphthoyl)-1H-indazol-1-yl]pentanoic acid
5-[3-(1-Naphthoyl)-1H-indol-1-yl]pentanenitrile (also known as AM‑2232)
(1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (also known as UR-144)
5-[3-(2,2,3,3-Tetramethylcyclopropanecarbonyl)-1H-indol-1-yl] pentanoic acid
(1-Butyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-073)
(4-Chloronaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-398)
[1-(4-Chloropent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as 4-Chloro-AM-2201)
(4-Ethylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-210)
[1-(5-Fluoropent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as MAM-2201)
[1-(5-Fluoropent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as AM-2201) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
[1-(4-Fluoropent-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as 4-Fluoro-AM-2201)
[1-(5-Fluoropent-1-yl)-6-nitro-1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as AM-1235)
[1-(Heptan-2-yl)-2-methyl-1H-indol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as JWH-011)
(1-Heptyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-020)
(1-Hexyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-019)
(4-Methoxynaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-081)
(2-Methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-015)
(4-Methylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-122)
{1-[(1-Methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H-indol-3-yl}(naphthalen-1- yl)methanone (also known as AM-1220)
{1-[2-(Morpholin-4-yl)ethyl]-1H-indol-3-yl}(naphthalen-1-yl) methanone (also known as JWH-200)
Naphthalen-1-yl[1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl]methanone (also known as JWH-022)
Naphthalen-1-yl(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-018)
Naphthalen-1-yl(1-propyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as JWH-072)
2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone (also known as JWH-203)
1-[1-(2-Cyclohexylethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-2-(2-methoxyphenyl) ethanone (also known as RCS-8)
2-(2-Methoxyphenyl)-1-{1-[(1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H- indol-3-yl}ethanone (also known as cannabipiperidiethanone)
2-(2-Methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone (also known as JWH-250) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
2-(3-Methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone (also known as JWH-302)
2-(4-Methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone (also known as JWH-201)
2-(2-Methylphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanone (also known as JWH-251)
[1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2-iodophenyl)methanone (also known as AM-694)
(2-Iodo-5-nitrophenyl){1-[(1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H- indol-3-yl}methanone (also known as AM-1241)
(2-Iodophenyl){1-[(1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H-indol-3-yl} methanone (also known as AM-2233)
(2-Iodophenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as AM‑679)
(4-Methoxyphenyl){2-methyl-1-[2-(morpholin-4-yl)ethyl]-1H-indol- 3-yl}methanone (also known as pravadoline)
(4-Methoxyphenyl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as RCS-4)
1-Adamantyl{1-[(1-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-1H-indol-3-yl} methanone (also known as AM-1248)
1-Adamantyl(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (also known as AB‑001)
(1-(Pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl) methanone (also known as XLR-11 N-(4-pentenyl) analogue or UR- 144 N-(4-pentenyl) analogue) [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
(a) at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with a type A substituent; and (b) at any hydrogen atom of the carboxamide with a type B substituent, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways: (c) substitution of the indole ring with a nitrogen heterocyclic analog; (d) substitution to the indole ring or its nitrogen heterocyclic analog to any extent; FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (e) substitution to the type B substituent to any extent, including any salt or stereoisomeric form of the compound or derivative of the compound, any preparation or product containing the compound or derivative of the compound, and the following examples of such a compound or derivative:
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(5-bromopentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Bromo-APINACA or 5-Bromo-AKB48)
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(5-chloropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Chloro-APINACA or 5-Chloro-AKB48)
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as Adamantyl CHMINACA or SGT-37)
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(5-hydroxypentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as FUB-APINACA or FUB-AKB48) (5A) N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 4‑Fluoro‑ABUTINACA or 4F‑ABUTINACA or 4‑Fluoro ABINACA)
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-APINACA or 5F-AKB48)
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-APICA or STS-135) (7A) N-(1-Adamantyl)-4-hydroxybutyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as APINACA)
N-(1-Adamantyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (also known as APICA)
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)- 1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as MAB-CHMINACA or ADB-CHMINACA) (10A) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4,5- dihydroxypentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1- oxobutan-2-yl)-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide or ADB-FUBINACA) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-ADB-PINACA)
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H- indole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-ADBICA) (13A) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4- hydroxycyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024] (13B) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as ADB-4en-PINACA, ADMB- 4en-PINACA or ADB‑PENINACA) [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as ADB-PINACA)
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole-3- carboxamide (also known as ADBICA) (15A) 4-{3-[(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)carbamoyl]-1H- indazole-1-yl}butanoic acid
N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-chloropentyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Chloro-AB-PINACA)
N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as AB-CHMINACA)
N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as N-[1-amino-3-methyl-1- oxobutan-2-yl]-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide or AB-FUBINACA)
N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H- indole-3-carboxamide (also known as AB-FUBICA)
N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-AB-PINACA)
N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as AB-PINACA)
N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as PX-3 or APP-CHMINACA)
N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide (also known as PX-2 or 5-Fluoro-APP- PINACA) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H- indole-3-carboxamide (also known as PX-1 or 5-Fluoro-APP-PICA)
Ethyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as EMB-FUBINACA or AEB- FUBINACA or FUB-AEB)
Ethyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as 5-Fluoro-EDMB-PINACA)
Ethyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as 5-Fluoro-AEB or 5-Fluoro-EMB- PINACA)
2-[1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid
2-[1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoic acid
2-[1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-methylbutanoic acid
2-[1-(4-Fluorobutyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid (31A) 2-[1-(4-Fluorobutyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid
5-Fluoropent-1-yl-N-naphthalen-1-yl-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (also known as CBM-2201, 5-Fluoro-NNEI, 5F-NNEI or MN-24F)
1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indole-3- carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-cumyl-PICA)
2-[1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid
2-[1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid
2-[1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoic acid (36AA) 2-[1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-methylbutanoic acid [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] (36A) 2-[1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-phenylpropanoic acid FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (36B) 1-(5-Hydroxypentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (36C) Methyl 2-(1-butyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as MDMB‑BUTINACA or MDMB- BINACA) [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
Methyl 2-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as MDMB-CHMINACA)
Methyl 2-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as MA-CHMINACA)
Methyl 2-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as Methyl N-{[1- (cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]carbonyl}-3-methyl-L-valinate or MDMB-CHMICA)
Methyl 2-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as MMB-CHMICA)
Methyl 3,3-dimethyl-2-[1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indazole-3- carboxamido]butanoate (also known as MDMB-4en-PINACA or MDMB-PINACA N1-pentyl-4-en isomer or MDMB(N)-022)
Methyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as MDMB-FUBINACA)
Methyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as Methyl 2-({1-[(4-fluorophenyl) methyl]-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl}amino)-3-methylbutanoate or MMB-FUBINACA or AMB-FUBINACA or FUB‑AMB)
Methyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as MMB-FUBICA or AMB-FUBICA)
Methyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as Methyl 2-{[1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H- indazole-3-carbonyl]amino}-3,3-dimethylbutanoate, 4F-MDMB- BINACA, 4F-MDMB-BUTINACA or 4-Fluoro-MDMB-BINACA)
Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as 5-Fluoro-MDMB-PINACA or 5‑Fluoro-ADB)
Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as Methyl 2-{[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H- indazole-3-carbonyl]amino}-3-methylbutanoate, 5F-AMP, 5-Fluoro- FIRST SCHEDULE — continued AMP, 5F-MMB-PINACA, 5F-AMB-PINACA, 5-Fluoro-AMB or 5‑Fluoro-MMB-PINACA)
Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as Methyl 2-{[1-(5-fluoropentyl)- 1H-indole-3-carbonyl]amino}-3,3-dimethylbutanoate, 5F-MDMB- PICA, 5F-MDMB-2201, 5-Fluoro-MDMB-2201 or 5-Fluoro- MDMB-PICA)
Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3- phenylpropanoate (also known as 5-Fluoro-MPP-PICA or 5-Fluoro- MPhP-PICA or MPHP-2201)
Methyl 2-[1-(4-hydroxybutyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate
Methyl 2-[1-(5-hydroxypentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (51A) Methyl 2-[1-(5-hydroxypentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3- phenylpropanoate
N-(1-Methyl-1-phenylethyl)-1-(4-cyanobutyl)-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as 1-(4-Cyanobutyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2- yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide or Cumyl-4CN-BINACA or 4-Cyano cumyl-butinaca or SGT-78)
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-butyl-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as 2-[(1-Butyl-1H-indazol-3-yl) formamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanamide or ADB-BUTINACA)
1-Pentyl-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (also known as Cumyl-PICA) (54A) 4-{3-[(1-Adamantyl)carbamoyl]-1H-indazole-1-yl}butanoic acid [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022]
5-{3-[(1-Adamantyl)carbamoyl]-1H-indazole-1-yl}pentanoic acid
5-{3-[(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)carbamoyl]-1H- indazole-1-yl}pentanoic acid
5-{3-[(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)carbamoyl]-1H- indole-1-yl}pentanoic acid
5-{3-[(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)carbamoyl]-1H-indazole- 1-yl}pentanoic acid
4-{3-[(2-Phenylpropan-2-yl)carbamoyl]-1H-indazole-1-yl}butanoic acid FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
2-[1-(Pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid
2-[1-(4,5-Dihydroxypentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoic acid
2-(1-Butyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoic acid
N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-hydroxybutyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide
5-{3-[(2-Phenylpropan-2-yl)carbamoyl]-1H-indol-1-yl}pentanoic acid
1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3- carboxamide (also known as 5-Fluoro-cumyl-PINACA)
Ethyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3- methylbutanoate (also known as 5-Fluoro-EMB-PICA or EMB-2201)
Methyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3- dimethylbutanoate (also known as Methyl 2-{[1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H- indole-3-carbonyl]amino}-3,3-dimethylbutanoate, 4F-MDMB-BICA, 4F-MDMB-BUTICA or 4-Fluoro-MDMB-BUTICA)
(a) at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with a type A substituent; and (b) at the hydrogen atom of the carboxylic acid with a type B substituent, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways: (c) substitution of the indole ring with a nitrogen heterocyclic analog; (d) substitution to the indole ring or its nitrogen heterocyclic analog to any extent; (e) substitution to the type B substituent to any extent, including any salt or stereoisomeric form of the compound or derivative of the compound, any preparation or product containing the compound or derivative of the compound, and the following examples of such a compound or derivative:
Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate (also known as 5-Fluoro-SDB-005)
Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (also known as NM-2201 or CBL-2201) FIRST SCHEDULE — continued
Naphthalen-1-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate (also known as SDB-005)
Quinolin-8-yl 1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (also known as BB-22 or QUCHIC)
Quinolin-8-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (also known as 5-Fluoro-PB-22 or 5-Fluoro-QUPIC)
Quinolin-8-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (also known as PB‑22 or QUPIC)
Codeine. Norcodeine. Dextropropoxyphene. Phencyclidine. Dihydrocodeine. Phenmetrazine. Ethylmorphine (3-ethylmorphine). Pholcodine. Fenetylline. Propiram. Methylphenidate. Zipeprol. Nicocodine.
Benzphetamine. Methaqualone. FIRST SCHEDULE — continued Chlorphentermine. Nimetazepam. Flunitrazepam. Phendimetrazine. Mecloqualone. Pipradrol. Mephentermine. Secobarbital. Triazolam.
MEANING OF CERTAIN TERMS USED IN THIS SCHEDULE For the purposes of this Schedule — “cannabinol derivatives” means the following substances, namely tetrahydro or hexahydro derivatives of cannabinol and their carboxylic acid derivatives, and 3‑alkyl homologues of cannabinol or its tetrahydro or hexahydro derivatives and any compound structurally derived from such derivatives by substitution of any of the hydrogen atoms; [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024] “coca leaf” means the leaf of any plant of the genus Erythroxylon from whose leaves cocaine can be extracted either directly or by chemical transformation; “concentrate of poppy-straw” means the material produced when poppy‑straw has entered into a process for the concentration of its alkaloids; “opium poppy” means any plant from which morphine may be produced; “preparation” means a mixture, solid or liquid, containing a controlled drug; “poppy-straw” means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing; “type A substituent” means — (a) an alkyl group; FIRST SCHEDULE — continued (b) a cyanoalkyl group; (c) an alkenyl group; (d) a cycloalkylmethyl group; (e) a cycloalkylethyl group; (f) a 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl group; (g) a 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group; (h) a 1-(N-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)methyl group; (i) a 1-(N-methyl-3-morpholinyl)methyl group; (j) a tetrahydropyranylmethyl group; (k) an arylalkyl group; or [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (l) a halogen, hydroxy and/or carboxylic acid derivative of any group mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (k); “type B substituent” means — (a) an alkyl group; (b) an alkenyl group; (c) an alkylamido group; (d) an alkylcarboxylic acid group; (e) a phenyl group; (f) an arylalkyl group; [S 453/2023 wef 01/07/2023] (g) a cycloalkyl group; (h) a cycloalkylmethyl group; (i) a cycloalkylethyl group; (j) an adamantyl group; (k) a naphthyl group; (l) a norbornyl group; (m) a 1,2,3,4-tetrahydronaphthyl group; or (n) a heterocyclic analog of any group mentioned in paragraphs (e) to (m). [30/2012; S 685/2010; S 272/2013; S 323/2014; S 572/2014; S 254/2015; S 200/2016; S 194/2017; FIRST SCHEDULE — continued S 233/2018; S 587/2018; S 150/2019; S 354/2019; S 792/2019; S 349/2020; S 751/2020; S 284/2021] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] SECOND SCHEDULE Sections 2, 33(1), (2), (3), (3B) and (4D) and 33B(1) OFFENCES PUNISHABLE ON CONVICTION Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General
Unauthorised traffic in controlled drug except as otherwise provided in this Schedule Maximum 20 years and 15 strokes Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes Maximum 10 years and 5 strokes — — Maximum 30 years or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes — Minimum 5 years and 5 strokes Minimum 3 years and 3 strokes Minimum 2 years and 2 strokes —
Unauthorised traffic in opium where the quantity is — (a) not less than 800 grammes and not more than — — — — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General 1,200 grammes and containing not less than 20 grammes of morphine Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 1,200 grammes and containing more than 30 grammes of morphine
Unauthorised traffic in controlled drug (except opium) containing such quantity of morphine being — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 20 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 30 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 30 grammes
Unauthorised traffic in controlled drug containing such quantity of diamorphine being — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 10 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 15 grammes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 15 grammes
Unauthorised traffic in controlled drug containing such quantity of cocaine being — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 20 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 30 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (b) more than — — — Death — 30 grammes
Unauthorised traffic in cannabis where the quantity is — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 330 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 500 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 500 grammes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General
Unauthorised traffic in cannabis mixture where the quantity is — (a) not less than 660 grammes and not more than 1,000 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 15 strokes — (b) more than 1,000 grammes — — — Death —
Unauthorised traffic in cannabis resin where the quantity is — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 130 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 200 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 200 grammes
Unauthorised traffic in controlled drug containing such quantity of methamphetamine being — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 167 grammes and not or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General more than Minimum 20 years and 15 strokes Death — — 250 grammes — (b) more than — — — — 250 grammes
Unauthorised manufacture Maximum Maximum Maximum — of controlled drug except as 30 years or 30 years or 20 years and otherwise provided in this imprisonment imprisonment 15 strokes Schedule for life and for life and 15 strokes 15 strokes Minimum Minimum Minimum — 10 years and 10 years and 5 years and 5 5 strokes 5 strokes strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General
Unauthorised manufacture of morphine, or any salt of morphine, ester of morphine or salt of ester of morphine — — — Death —
Unauthorised manufacture of diamorphine or any salt of diamorphine — — — Death —
Unauthorised manufacture of cocaine or any salt of cocaine — — — Death —
Unauthorised manufacture of methamphetamine or any salt of methamphetamine — — — Death — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General
Unauthorised import or export of controlled drug except as otherwise provided in this Schedule Maximum 30 years or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes Maximum 30 years or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes Maximum 20 years and 15 strokes — — Maximum 30 years or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes — Minimum 5 years and 5 strokes Minimum 5 years and 5 strokes Minimum 3 years and 5 strokes —
Unauthorised import or export of opium where the quantity is — (a) not less than 800 grammes and not more than 1,200 grammes and containing not less — — — — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General than 20 grammes of morphine Minimum 20 years and 15 strokes — (b) more than 1,200 grammes and containing more than 30 grammes of morphine — — — Death —
Unauthorised import or export of controlled drug (except opium) containing such quantity of morphine being — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 20 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 30 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 30 grammes
Unauthorised import or export of controlled drug containing such quantity of diamorphine being — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 10 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 15 grammes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 15 grammes
Unauthorised import or export of controlled drug containing such quantity of cocaine being — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 20 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 30 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (b) more than — — — Death — 30 grammes
Unauthorised import or export of cannabis where the quantity is — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 330 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 500 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 500 grammes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General
Unauthorised import or export of cannabis mixture where the quantity is — (a) not less than 660 grammes and not more than 1,000 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 15 strokes — (b) more than 1,000 grammes — — — Death —
Unauthorised import or export of cannabis resin where the quantity is — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 130 grammes and not or imprisonment for more than life and 15 strokes 200 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 200 grammes
Unauthorised import or export of controlled drug containing such quantity of methamphetamine being — (a) not less than — — — Maximum 30 years — 167 grammes and not or imprisonment for life and 15 strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General more than 250 grammes Minimum 20 years — and 15 strokes (b) more than — — — Death — 250 grammes 8(a)
Unauthorised possession of cannabis where the quantity is — (a) less than 330 — — — Maximum 10 years — grammes or $20,000 or both (subject to
(b) not less than 330 — — — Maximum 20 years — grammes and not and 10 strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General more than 500 grammes Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 500 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of cannabis mixture where the quantity is — (a) less than 660 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both (subject to
— SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (b) not less than 660 grammes and not more than 1,000 grammes — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 1,000 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of cannabis resin where the quantity is — (a) less than 130 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (subject to section 33(3B)) (b) not less than 130 grammes and not more than 200 grammes — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 200 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of controlled drug containing SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General a quantity of cocaine that is — (a) less than 20 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both (subject to
— (b) not less than 20 grammes and not more than 30 grammes — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 30 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of controlled drug containing a quantity of diamorphine that is — (a) less than 10 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both (subject to
— (b) not less than 10 grammes and not more than 15 grammes — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (c) more than 15 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of controlled drug containing a quantity of methamphetamine that is — (a) less than 167 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both (subject to
— (b) not less than 167 grammes and not — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General more than 250 grammes Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 250 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of controlled drug (except opium) containing a quantity of morphine that is — (a) less than 20 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (subject to section 33(3B)) (b) not less than 20 grammes and not more than 30 grammes — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 30 grammes — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes
Unauthorised possession of opium where the quantity is — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General (a) less than 800 grammes — — — Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both (subject to
— (b) not less than 800 grammes and not more than 1,200 grammes and containing not less than 20 grammes of morphine — — — Maximum 20 years and 10 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 5 strokes (c) more than 1,200 grammes and containing more than — — — Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General 30 grammes of morphine Minimum 20 years and 10 strokes Maximum 10 years or $20,000 or both (subject to
— —
Unauthorised possession of a controlled drug except as otherwise provided in this Schedule — — — — 8(b) [Deleted by Act 1 of 2019] Possession of pipes, utensils, etc., for smoking, administration or consumption of a controlled drug — — — Maximum 3 years or $10,000 or both Cultivation of cannabis, opium, coca plant — — — Maximum 20 years or SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General $40,000 or both Minimum 3 years or $5,000 or both 10A Manufacture, supply, possession, import or export of equipment, materials or substances useful for manufacture of controlled drugs — — — — Maximum 20 years or $200,000 or both Being the owner, tenant, occupier or person concerned in the management of premises and permitting or suffering certain activities to take place there Maximum 10 years or $40,000 or both Maximum 10 years or $40,000 or both Maximum 5 years or $10,000 or both — — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General Minimum 2 years or $4,000 or both Minimum 2 years or $4,000 or both Minimum 12 months or $2,000 or both — — — — Maximum 3 years or $5,000 or both 11E Causing or procuring young person or vulnerable person to commit certain offences Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes Maximum 30 years and 15 strokes Maximum 20 years and 15 strokes — Minimum 10 years and 10 strokes Minimum 6 years and 6 strokes Minimum 4 years and 4 strokes — [Deleted by Act 1 of 2019] 30(1)(a) Obstructing exercise of powers — — — — SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General Minimum 6 months or $1,000 or both 30(1)(b) Failure to comply with lawful requirements — — — — Maximum 3 years or $5,000 or both Minimum 6 months or $1,000 or both 30(1)(c) Failure to furnish information — — — — Maximum 3 years or $5,000 or both SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General Minimum 6 months or $1,000 or both 30(1)(d) Furnishing false information — — — — Maximum 12 months or $5,000 or both 31(2) [Deleted by Act 1 of 2019] 31(2A) Failure to comply with order of — — — — Maximum Director for urine test 4 years or $10,000 or both 31A(2) [Deleted by Act 1 of 2019] SECOND SCHEDULE — continued Section creating offence General nature of offence Punishment Class A drug involved Class B drug involved Class C drug involved Specified drug or quantity thereof or drug with specified content involved General 31A(2A) Failure to comply with order of Director for hair test — — — — Maximum 4 years or $10,000 or both 31B(2) Failure to provide oral fluid — — — — Maximum 2 years or $5,000 or both [30/2012; 1/2019] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2023] THIRD SCHEDULE Sections 2 and 59 CONTROLLED EQUIPMENT, MATERIALS OR SUBSTANCES USEFUL FOR MANUFACTURING CONTROLLED DRUGS
Acetic anhydride also known as Acetic oxide Alpha-phenylacetoacetamide also known as APAA Alpha-phenylacetoacetonitrile, also known as APAAN, and its optical isomers N-acetylanthranilic acid also known as N-Acetyl-o-aminobenzoic acid 4-Anilino-N-phenethylpiperidine also known as ANPP 3-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylic acid also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid or PMK glycidic acid Butan-2-yl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, sec-butyl ester or sec-butyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2- oxiranecarboxylate Butan-2-yl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, sec-butyl ester or sec-butyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate Butyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, butyl ester Butyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, butyl ester Ephedrine also known as β-Hydroxy-N-methylamphetamine Ergometrine also known as Ergonovine or Ergobasine or [8β(S)]-9,10- Didehydro-N-(2-hydroxy-l-methylethyl)-6-methyl-6-methylergoline-8- carboxamide Ergotamine also known as 12’-Hydroxy-2’-methyl-5’α-(phenymethyl) ergotaman-3’,6’,18’-trinone Ethyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, ethyl ester Ethyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, ethyl ester Isopropyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, isopropyl ester Isopropyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, isopropyl ester Isosafrole also known as 1,2-(Methylenedioxy)-4-propenylbenzene Lysergic acid also known as 9,10-Didehydro-6-methylergoline-8β- carboxylic acid Methyl alpha-phenylacetoacetate (also known as MAPA) Methyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, methyl ester Methyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidate or PMK glycidate 3,4-methylenedioxyphenyl-2-propanone 2-Methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylic acid also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid or BMK glycidic acid 2-Methylpropyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, isobutyl ester or isobutyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl- 2-oxiranecarboxylate 2-Methylpropyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, isobutyl ester or isobutyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate Norephedrine Norpseudoephedrine N-Phenethyl-4-piperidone also known as NPP 1-Phenyl-2-propanone also known as Phenylacetone N-Phenyl-N-(piperidin-4-yl)propionamide (also known as norfentanyl) N-Phenylpiperidin-4-amine (also known as 4-anilinopiperidine, N- phenyl-4-piperidinamine or 4-AP) Phenylacetic acid also known as Benzeneacetic acid or α-Toluic acid Piperidin-4-one also known as 4-Piperidone Piperonal also known as 3,4-(Methylenedioxy)benzaldehyde or Piperonylaldehyde Potassium permanganate THIRD SCHEDULE — continued Propyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, propyl ester Propyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, propyl ester Pseudoephedrine also known as β-Hydroxy-N-methylamphetamine Safrole also known as 4-Allyl-1,2-methylenedioxybenzene tert-Butyl 2-methyl-3-phenyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as P-2-P methyl glycidic acid, tert-butyl ester tert-Butyl 3-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-methyl-2-oxiranecarboxylate also known as 3,4-MDP-2-P methyl glycidic acid, tert-butyl ester tert-Butyl 4-oxo-1-piperidinecarboxylate also known as 1-Boc-4- piperidone tert-Butyl 4-(phenylamino)piperidine-1-carboxylate (also known as 4- anilino-1-boc-piperidine, 1-boc-4-anilinopiperidine, tert-butoxycarbonyl- 4-anilinopiperidine, t-boc-4-anilinopiperidine, t-boc-4-AP, 1-boc-4-AP or boc-4-AP). [S 926/2024 wef 01/12/2024] [S 440/2022 wef 01/06/2022] [S 431/2024 wef 01/06/2024]
Acetone also known as 2-Propanone or Dimethyl ketone Anthranilic acid also known as o-Aminobenzoic acid Ethyl ether also known as Ether or Diethyl ether or Ethyl oxide or Diethyl oxide or Ethoxyethane or 1,1’-Oxybisethane Hydrochloric acid Methyl ethyl ketone also known as 2-Butanone Piperidine also known as Hexahydropyridine Sulphuric acid Toluene also known as Methylbenzene or Phenylmethane.
[S 272/2013; S 440/2014; S 572/2014; S 625/2017; S 354/2019; S 349/2020] FOURTH SCHEDULE Sections 2, 33A(5) and 59 SPECIFIED DRUGS
2A. Buprenorphine 2B. Cannabinol 2C. Cannabinol derivatives as defined in Part 4 of the First Schedule 2D. Cannabis 2E. Cocaine
3A. Ecgonine, and any derivative of ecgonine which is convertible to ecgonine or to cocaine
FOURTH SCHEDULE — continued [S 323/2014; S 792/2019] FIFTH SCHEDULE Sections 2 and 59
FIFTH SCHEDULE — continued
“alcoholic product” means any product that — (a) contains alcohol; but (b) does not contain any other psychoactive substance; “caffeine product” means any product that — (a) contains caffeine; but (b) does not contain any other psychoactive substance; “food” means any substance that — (a) is ordinarily consumed as food by humans or animals; but (b) does not contain any psychoactive substance that is not — (i) naturally occurring in the substance; or (ii) produced in the ordinary course of preparing or manufacturing that substance for consumption, other than a food additive within the meaning of the Food Regulations (Rg 1); “health product” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Health Products Act 2007; “herbal medicine” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Traditional Chinese Medicine Practitioners Act 2000; “industrial material or substance” means — (a) any flammable material specified in the Fourth Schedule to the Fire Safety (Petroleum and Flammable Materials) Regulations (Rg 7); (b) any substance specified in the first column of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Environmental Protection and Management Act 1999; or (c) any substance specified in the First Schedule to the Workplace Safety and Health (General Provisions) Regulations (Rg 1); “intoxicating substance” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Intoxicating Substances Act 1987; FIFTH SCHEDULE — continued “medicinal product” has the meaning given by section 3 of the Medicines Act 1975; “poison” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Poisons Act 1938; “psychotropic substance” has the meaning given by regulation 2 of the Medicines (Export Licence for Psychotropic Substances) Regulations (Rg 9); “tobacco product” means any product that — (a) contains tobacco; but (b) does not contain any other psychoactive substance; “tobacco substitute” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Tobacco (Control of Advertisements and Sale) Act 1993. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] LEGISLATIVE HISTORY MISUSE OF DRUGS ACT 1973 This Legislative History is a service provided by the Law Revision Commission on a best-efforts basis. It is not part of the Act. PICTORIAL OVERVIEW OF PREDECESSOR ACTS LEGISLATIVE HISTORY DETAILS PART 1 DELETERIOUS DRUGS ORDINANCE (CHAPTER 190, 1936 REVISED EDITION)
Bill : G.N. No. 246/1896 First Reading : 30 April 1896 Second Reading : 7 May 1896 Third Reading : 4 June 1896 Commencement : 4 June 1896
Bill : G.N. No. 707/1903 First Reading : 19 June 1903 Second Reading : 26 June 1903 Notice of Amendments : 17 July 1903 Third Reading : 17 July 1903 Commencement : 1 January 1904
Bill : G.N. No. 1023/1904 First Reading : 16 September 1904 Second Reading : 23 September 1904 Select Committee Report : Council Paper No. 32 of 1904 Notice of Amendments : 7 October 1904 Third Reading : 7 October 1904 Commencement : 7 October 1904
Bill : G.N. No. 613/1907 First Reading : 14 June 1907 Second Reading : 21 June 1907 Third Reading : 12 July 1907 Commencement : 12 July 1907
Bill : G.N. No. 1019/1910 First Reading : 2 September 1910 Second Reading : 9 September 1910 Amendments to Bill : 7 October 1910 Third Reading : 7 October 1910 Commencement : 12 October 1910
(Amendments made by section 3 read with the Schedule to the above Ordinance) Bill : G.N. No. 947/1912 First Reading : 30 August 1912 Second Reading : 20 September 1912 Third Reading : 4 October 1912 Commencement : 13 November 1912 (section 3 read with the Schedule)
Bill : G.N. No. 1031/1913 First Reading : 22 August 1913 Second Reading : 5 September 1913 Third Reading : 31 October 1913 Commencement : 18 November 1913
Operation : 28 November 1921
(Amendments made by section 3(a) read with Schedule B to the above Ordinance) Bill : G.N. No. 1854/1921 First and Second Readings : 22 November 1921 Notice of Amendments : 22 November 1921 Third Reading : 22 November 1921 Commencement : 28 November 1921 (section 3(a) read with Schedule B)
Bill : G.N. No. 1145/1924 First Reading : 30 June 1924 Second Reading : 15 September 1924 Select Committee Report : Information not available Third Reading : 16 March 1925 Commencement : 11 April 1925
Operation : 1 August 1926
Bill : G.N. No. 186/1927 First Reading : 7 February 1927 Second Reading : 21 March 1927 Notice of Amendments : 21 March 1927 Commencement : 2 June 1927
Bill : G.N. No. 547/1928 First Reading : 26 March 1928 Second Reading : 7 May 1928 Notice of Amendments : 7 May 1928 Third Reading : 2 July 1928 Commencement : 21 July 1928
Bill : G.N. No. 2953/1935 First Reading : 20 November 1935 Second Reading : 9 December 1935 Notice of Amendments : 9 December 1935 Third Reading : 9 December 1935 Commencement : 1 April 1936
Operation : 1 September 1936
(CHAPTER 151, 1970 REVISED EDITION)
Bill : G.N. No. S 473/1950 First Reading : 21 November 1950 Second Reading : 19 December 1950 Notice of Amendments : 19 December 1950 Third Reading : 19 December 1950 Commencement : 1 March 1951 Note: This Ordinance repealed the Deleterious Drugs Ordinance (Chapter 190, 1936 Revised Edition) and the Opium and Chandu Proclamation (Proclamation No. 43) (British Military Administration G.N. No. 201/1946).
Bill : G.N. No. S 340/1954 First Reading : 12 October 1954 Second Reading : 2 November 1954 Third Reading : 16 November 1954 Commencement : 8 February 1955
Bill : 25/1955 First Reading : 12 October 1955 Second and Third Readings : 7 November 1955 Commencement : 25 November 1955
Operation : 1 July 1956
Operation : 1 July 1956
Bill : 65/1956 First Reading : 5 September 1956 Second and Third Readings : 3 October 1956 Commencement : 19 October 1956
Bill : 66/1956 First Reading : 5 September 1956 Second Reading : 3 October 1956 Notice of Amendments : 3 October 1956 Third Reading : 3 October 1956 Commencement : 19 October 1956
Bill : 158/1958 First Reading : 16 July 1958 Second Reading : 13 August 1958 Notice of Amendments : 10 September 1958 Third Reading : 10 September 1958 Commencement : 25 September 1958 (section 2 read with the Schedule)
Bill : 203/1959 First Reading : 11 February 1959 Second Reading : 3 March 1959 Notice of Amendments : 3 March 1959 Third Reading : 3 March 1959 Commencement : 20 March 1959
Commencement : 20 November 1959
Operation : 31 May 1971
(Amendments made by section 2 read with the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 16/1973 First Reading : 7 March 1973 Second and Third Readings : 20 March 1973 Commencement : 6 April 1973 (section 2 read with the Schedule)
DRUGS (PREVENTION OF MISUSE) ACT (CHAPTER 154, 1970 REVISED EDITION)
Bill : 7/1969 First Reading : 8 April 1969 Second and Third Readings : 12 June 1969 Commencement : 1 August 1969
Commencement : 20 November 1970
Operation : 31 May 1971
(Amendments made by section 2 read with the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 16/1973 First Reading : 7 March 1973 Second and Third Readings : 20 March 1973 Commencement : 6 April 1973 (section 2 read with the Schedule)
MISUSE OF DRUGS ACT 1973 (2020 REVISED EDITION)
Bill : 46/1972 First Reading : 22 November 1972 Second Reading : 16 February 1973 Notice of Amendments : 16 February 1973 Third Reading : 16 February 1973 Commencement : 7 July 1973
Commencement : 15 February 1974
Commencement : 27 March 1975
Bill : 55/1975 First Reading : 11 November 1975 Second Reading : 20 November 1975 Notice of Amendments : 20 November 1975 Third Reading : 20 November 1975 Commencement : 12 December 1975
Bill : 14/1977 First Reading : 2 September 1977 Second Reading : 9 November 1977 Notice of Amendments : 9 November 1977 Third Reading : 9 November 1977 Commencement : 1 January 1978
Commencement : 27 January 1978
Reprint : 15 December 1978
Commencement : 20 April 1979
Bill : 27/1979 First Reading : 7 September 1979 Second and Third Readings : 21 September 1979 Commencement : 1 October 1979
Commencement : 4 October 1983
Commencement : 4 October 1983
Commencement : 31 August 1984
Commencement : 2 November 1984
Commencement : 7 February 1986
Operation : 30 March 1987
Commencement : 15 February 1990
Bill : 39/1989 First Reading : 6 October 1989 Second and Third Readings : 30 November 1989 Commencement : 15 February 1990
Commencement : 2 January 1992
Commencement : 1 March 1992
Bill : 33/1993 First Reading : 12 October 1993 Second and Third Readings : 10 November 1993 Commencement : 10 December 1993
Commencement : 16 June 1995
Commencement : 17 May 1996
Operation : 30 May 1997
Commencement : 17 October 1997
Bill : 17/1998 First Reading : 20 April 1998 Second and Third Readings : 1 June 1998 Commencement : 20 July 1998
Operation : 15 December 1998
Commencement : 9 September 1999
(Amendments made by section 26 of the above Act) Bill : 5/2000 First Reading : 17 January 2000 Second and Third Readings : 21 February 2000 Commencement : 17 April 2000 (section 26)
Commencement : 15 May 2000
Commencement : 11 September 2000
(Amendments made by section 42 read with item (8) of the Second Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 3/2001 First Reading : 12 January 2001 Second and Third Readings : 22 February 2001 Commencement : 1 April 2001 (section 42 read with item (8) of the Second Schedule)
Operation : 31 July 2001
Commencement : 8 October 2001
Commencement : 30 January 2004
(Amendments made by section 16 read with item (6) of the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 52/2004 First Reading : 19 October 2004 Second and Third Readings : 25 January 2005 Commencement : 10 June 2005 (section 16 read with item (6) of the Schedule)
Commencement : 1 August 2005
Bill : 40/2005 First Reading : 21 November 2005 Second and Third Readings : 16 January 2006 Commencement : 1 March 2006
Commencement : 14 August 2006
Commencement : 1 October 2006
Commencement : 1 August 2007
(Amendments made by section 39 read with item (7) of the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 9/2007 First Reading : 27 February 2007 Second and Third Readings : 12 April 2007 Commencement : 1 January 2008 (section 39 read with item (7) of the Schedule)
Operation : 31 March 2008
Commencement : 15 November 2010
(Amendments made by section 430 read with item 63 of the Sixth Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 11/2010 First Reading : 26 April 2010 Second Reading : 18 May 2010 Second and Third Readings : 19 May 2010 Commencement : 2 January 2011 (section 430 read with item 63 of the Sixth Schedule)
Bill : 27/2012 First Reading : 15 October 2012 Second and Third Readings : 14 November 2012 Commencement : 1 January 2013 (sections 2(c), (d) and (e), 3, 6, 14, 25(a), 27 and 28) 1 May 2013 (sections 4, 5, 7 to 13, 15(a) and (d), 23, 24, 25(b) and (c) and 26) 28 April 2014 (sections 2(a) and (b), 15(b), (c) and (e) and 16 to 22)
Commencement : 1 May 2013
Commencement : 2 May 2013
Commencement : 1 May 2014
Commencement : 1 July 2014
(Amendments made by section 22 read with item 5 of the Schedule to the above Act) Bill : 22/2013 First Reading : 11 November 2013 Second Reading : 21 January 2014 Notice of Amendments : 21 January 2014 Third Reading : 21 January 2014 Commencement : 1 July 2014 (section 22 read with item 5 of the Schedule)
Commencement : 1 September 2014
Commencement : 1 May 2015
Commencement : 1 November 2015
Commencement : 1 May 2016
Commencement : 1 May 2017
Commencement : 1 November 2017
Commencement : 1 May 2018
Commencement : 1 October 2018
Commencement : 25 March 2019
Bill : 51/2018 First Reading : 19 November 2018 Second and Third Readings : 15 January 2019 Commencement : 1 April 2019 (sections 2, 5 to 8, 10 to 17, 20(c), 21(a), (c) and (d) and 22(1)) 1 August 2019 (sections 3, 4, 9, 18, 19, 20(a) and (b), 21(b) and 22(2) and (3))
Commencement : 1 May 2019
Commencement : 1 December 2019
Commencement : 1 May 2020
Commencement : 4 September 2020
Commencement : 1 May 2021
Operation : 31 December 2021
Date of commencement : 1 June 2022
Bill : 38/2021 First Reading : 1 November 2021 Second and Third Readings : 11 January 2022 Commencement : 2 September 2022 (Section 27)
(Amendments made by the above Act) Bill : 19/2022 First Reading : 1 August 2022 Second and Third Readings : 12 September 2022 Commencement : 12 June 2023
Date of commencement : 1 July 2023
(Amendments made by the above Act) Bill : 9/2023 First Reading : 24 February 2023 Second and Third Readings : 21 March 2023 Commencement : 1 June 2023 1 June 2024
Date of commencement : 1 June 2024
Bill : 14/2024 First Reading : 7 March 2024 Second and Third Readings : 2 April 2024 Commencement : 18 November 2024
Date of commencement : 1 December 2024 Abbreviations (updated on 29 August 2022) G.N. Gazette Notification G.N. Sp. Gazette Notification (Special Supplement) L.A. Legislative Assembly L.N. Legal Notification (Federal/Malaysian) M. Malaya/Malaysia (including Federated Malay States, Malayan Union, Federation of Malaya and Federation of Malaysia) Parl. Parliament S Subsidiary Legislation S.I. Statutory Instrument (United Kingdom) S (N.S.) Subsidiary Legislation (New Series) S.S.G.G. Straits Settlements Government Gazette S.S.G.G. (E) Straits Settlements Government Gazette (Extraordinary)